Let $$F(N)=\prod_{p\ \text{prime}}\left(1-\frac{1}{N^2}{\left\lfloor{\frac{N}{p}}\right\rfloor}^2\right)$$ My claim is that, in the limit as $N$ goes to $+\infty$, this function approaches $\frac{6}{\pi^2}$. This is motivated by the fact that $$\frac{1}{\zeta(s)}=\prod_{p\ \text{prime}}\left(1-\frac{1}{p^s}\right)$$ $$\implies\ \frac{1}{\zeta(2)}=\frac{6}{\pi^2}=\prod_{p\ \text{prime}}\left(1-\frac{1}{p^2}\right)$$ However, I think there is a problem with the floor function. In my claim I am assuming that, as $N$ gets large, I can "simplify" the $\frac{1}{N^2}{\left\lfloor{\frac{N}{p}}\right\rfloor}^2$ to just $\frac{1}{p^2}$, since as $N$ grows ${\left\lfloor{\frac{N}{p}}\right\rfloor}\sim \frac{N}{p}$. Is this correct? If not, can we get a value for the limit, or an asymptotic behaviour for $F(N)$?
This question is motivated by the fact that, if the claim is true, we have an elementary proof of the result $$\sum_{k=1}^n \varphi(k)\simeq \frac{3}{\pi^2}n^2$$ which, I believe, is usually proved only with complicated number theory methods. For those who would like to learn more, here is the link to the original question.