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Question

Let $f : \mathbb R_+ \to \mathbb R$ be a convex function such that $f(x) \to -\infty$ as $x \to \infty$.

For $\varepsilon > 0$, is there a (standard) way to construct a convex function $f_\varepsilon \in C^\infty$ (or at least in $C^1$) such that $f - \varepsilon \leq f_\varepsilon \leq f\,$?

Put differently: Is there an $\varepsilon$-exact smoothing that underestimates $f$ and preserves convexity?


Thoughts

I'm not even sure that the conjecture I'd like to prove here is true. But, intuitively, it seems like it should be.

My first instinct was to use mollifiers. But (to my knowledge) these only yield pointwise convergence of $f_\varepsilon \to f$convergence as $\varepsilon \downarrow 0$. Perhaps the extra structure demanded of $f$ makes uniform convergence hold?

My guess is that the conjecture is true and somehow results from $f$ being convex and bounded from above. (If it's true, the limit $f(x) \to -\infty$ as $x \to \infty$ is likely a stronger condition than necessary.)

Hand waving (what follows is not rigorous): Since $f$ is defined on a closed set and is bounded from above, it ought to get progressively flatter. I think it follows that $\sup\Big\{\Big|\frac{f(y)-f(x)}{y-x} \Big| : 0 \leq x < y \Big\} < \infty$ and is, therefore, Lipschitz. It seems like this should ought to give us enough regularity that $f_\varepsilon$ and "hug" close enough to $f$ on all $\mathbb R_+$.

zxmkn
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1 Answers1

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Fix $\varepsilon>0$.

Define $g_{\varepsilon}(x):=f- \varepsilon /2$. Then it is clear that $f-\frac{2\varepsilon}{3} < g_{\varepsilon} < f-\frac{\varepsilon}{3}$ and $g_{\varepsilon}$ is convex.

Note that every convex function defined on $\mathbb R$ is continuous (cf. here), which is clearly locally integrable. Thus it makes sense to define mollifications.

Define $f_{\varepsilon, n}:=g_{\varepsilon}*m_n$, where $m_n$ is a sequence of standard mollifiers (i.e. a sequence of $C^\infty$ bump function, cf. here).

For each $n$, the convexity of $f_{\varepsilon, n}$ follows from the convexity of $g_{\varepsilon}$ by verifying the definition directly.

$\color{darkred}{\text{There is a problem of uniformity in $n$ in the following paragraph, but I am too lazy to edit the post.} \\ \text{Please refer to the comments below my post for more details.}}$

A well known result (cf. Theorem $7$ in Appendix C$.5.$ of Evans' classic PDE textbook) tells us that $f_{\varepsilon, n} \to g_{\varepsilon}$ as $n\to \infty$ almost everywhere. However, since $f_{\varepsilon, n}$ and $g_{\varepsilon}$ are continuous, we have $f_{\varepsilon, n} \to g_{\varepsilon}$ everywhere (cf. my quick proof in the remark $3$ below). This implies that, for all large $n$, $f_{\varepsilon, n}$ satisfies our demands (here I give you strict inequalities which are strong than your needs), i.e. $f-\varepsilon <f_{\varepsilon, n}<f$ and $f_{\varepsilon, n}$ is convex and $C^\infty$.


Remark on Notation: People (and Evans) use $\eta_\varepsilon$ to denote mollifiers. However, $\varepsilon$ has been used here and therefore I use $m_n$ instead.

Remark $2$: It seems like we don't need any asymptotic property of $f$, i.e. we don't really care its behavior when $x$ approaches $\infty$.

Remark $3$: Suppose $f_n,f\in C(\mathbb R)$, $\forall n$, and $f_n\to f$ almost everywhere. We will show that $f_n\to f$ everywhere.

Suppose not. Then $\exists x\in\mathbb R, \varepsilon_0 >0$, $\forall N$, $\exists n_0\ge N$ such that $|f_{n_0}(x)-f(x)|>\varepsilon_0$. Note that $f_{n_0}-f$ is continuous. We may therefore find an open neighborhood of $x$ in which $f_{n_0}-f>\varepsilon_0$. Since Lebesgue measure of an open neighborhood must be positive, it contradicts with our assumption that $f_n\to f$ almost everywhere.

$\tag*{$\square$}$

My reasoning in Remark $3$ works for any measure space whose measure is Lebesgue measure.

Sam Wong
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    BTW if you find my post helpful, please accept it and it will encourage me to answer more questions on this site. Thanks. :) – Sam Wong Oct 21 '22 at 12:57
  • Yeah, mollifiers were my first instinct too. But (to my knowledge) standard results only give pointwise convergence. But I'm hoping that the structure of $f$ permits the uniform convergence I ask for. – zxmkn Oct 21 '22 at 13:24
  • I don't think that your Remark 3 resolves the problem, though, since everywhere convergence doesn't imply uniform convergence. That is: It's true that for any given point $x \in \Bbb R_+$, there exists an $N_x \in \Bbb N$ such that $f(x) - \varepsilon \leq f_{\varepsilon, n}(x) \leq f(x)$ for $n \geq N_x$. But this alone doesn't imply $f - \varepsilon \leq f_{\varepsilon, n} \leq f$ for large $n$, i.e. $f(x) - \varepsilon \leq f_{\varepsilon, n}(x) \leq f(x)$ for all $x \in \Bbb R_+$ if $n$ is sufficiently large. But let me know if I'm misunderstanding your argument. – zxmkn Oct 21 '22 at 14:12
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    @zxmkn Yea, your observation makes sense. Then the best approximation I can give is that, for any $\varepsilon>0$ and compact set $K\subseteq \mathbb R^+$, there exists a convex $f_\varepsilon \in C^\infty$ such that $f - \varepsilon \leq f_\varepsilon \leq f$ on $K$. This fact is due to another well known result that, $f_{\varepsilon, n} \to g_{\varepsilon}$ uniformly as $n\to \infty$ on any compact set $K\subseteq \mathbb R^+$. For approximation outside $K$, one may need to use the asymptotic property of $f$, which I don't know how to use. – Sam Wong Oct 21 '22 at 16:18
  • To be more specific, $f_\varepsilon \in C^\infty(\mathbb R^+)$ since $\mathbb R^+$ has empty boundary in itself. – Sam Wong Oct 21 '22 at 16:27
  • @zxmkn I think we need a two-side (i.e. from above and below) bound of $f$ to get it progressively flatter. But your comment inspired me somehow. I guess $f(x)\to -\infty$ as $x\to \infty$ together with the convexity of $f$ can imply that $f$ behaves like a straight line for all large $x$. If this is true, then it seems like we can cut our $f_\varepsilon$ outside $K$ and add this straight line instead. – Sam Wong Oct 21 '22 at 16:49
  • Consider $x \mapsto -\log(x + 1)$, though. It's a convex function that's well-defined on $\Bbb R_+$ and diverges to $- \infty$, but it doesn't converge to a straight line. – zxmkn Oct 21 '22 at 16:56
  • I just updated the question statement with some thoughts, in case that's helpful. (MathSE is warning me that extended discussions in the comments are discouraged.) – zxmkn Oct 21 '22 at 17:04