Let $(M, \cdot, e)$ be a finite monoid. For $a \in M$ and some integer $n$, show there exists an integer $m >n$ such that $a^n = a^m$.
I've seen this conclusion used in many other questions, such as here and here, and I understand that the set $\lbrace e, a, a^2, ...\rbrace$ is finite, but I am still confused on how this explains the existence of the integer $m$.
partial-fractionsas "duplicate" since they are essential one single abstract technique? – Jul 08 '22 at 21:00