The BSD conjecture is usually formulated like this.
If $E/\mathbf{Q}$ is an elliptic curve, then $$ \text{rank }E/\mathbf{Q} = \text{ord}_{s=1} L(E,s), $$ where $L(E,s)$ is the Hasse-Weil $L$-function of $E$.
But in Anthony Knapp's book Elliptic Curves (see Conjecture 1.9 on page 17), there is an another more "elementary" formulation of BSD, given like this:
If $E/\mathbf{Q}$ is an elliptic curve, then $$ \prod_{p<X} \dfrac{\#E(\mathbf{F}_p)}{p} \sim (\text{const}) (\log X)^r, $$ where $r = \text{rank }E/\mathbf{Q}$.
The main difference between the two versions of BSD is that the "analytic" sides are formulated differently. In the first version, the analytic quantity is $\text{ord}_{s=1}L(E,s)$. In the second version, the analytic quantity is the rate of growth of the product $\prod_{p<X} \dfrac{\#E(\mathbf{F}_p)}{p}$.
My question is: why are these two analytic quantities the same? That is, why is the exponent $r$ in the formula $$\prod_{p<X}{} \dfrac{\#E(\mathbf{F}_p)}{p} \sim (\text{const})(\log X)^r$$ actually equal to $\text{ord}_{s=1} L(E,s)$?
The heuristic reason for this is that if we formally evaluate $L(E,s)$ at $s=1$ via the Euler product definition, we get $$L(E,1) "=" \prod_{p<X} \dfrac{p}{\#E(\mathbf{F}_p)},$$ but this does not rigorously make sense because the Euler product definition only converges for $\text{Re }s> 3/2$. So is there a rigorous way to justify this phenomenon?