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I have been studying topological vector spaces, and despite going over numerous resources, the definitions of weak and weak-* topologies have been causing me some confusion. I am having trouble visualizing and understanding these topologies.

Suppose $X$ is a normed vector space.

Then the weak topology on $X$ is the topology generated by $X^*$, in other words the weakest topology making $x \mapsto f(x)$ continuous for all $f \in X^*$.

Similarly, the weak-* topology is the weakest topology making the maps $x \mapsto f(x)$ continuous for all $x \in X$.

I see the big difference here is that one is generated by the dual and the other by the original vector space. However, I have three points of confusion. I suspect part of my difficulty may be due to not properly visualizing topologies generated by a collection of seminorms.

  1. The dual space $X^*$ is defined as the set of bounded linear functionals from $X$ to the underlying field. However, I recall reading that the boundedness of a linear map is equivalent to the map being continuous, so I fail to see what sets we are excluding in this new, weaker topology.

  2. What do the open sets (or more simply, the basis sets) look like in these two topologies?

  3. The resources I am learning this from often note a relation between the double dual $X^{**}$ and the weak-* topology, what is the relation between these spaces exactly?

CBBAM
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  • Are you able to answer any of your three questions in the setting of normed spaces? It might help your intuition to start with a more familiar type of space. – Theo Bendit Jun 10 '22 at 07:57

1 Answers1

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For any $X$, the weak topology on $X$ is defined to be the coarsest topology that makes $x\mapsto f(x)$ continuous for each $f\in X^*$, the dual space of $X$. Equivalently it is the topology induced by the seminorms $x\mapsto|f(x)|$, and an open neighborhood of origin looks like $\{x\in X: |f_i(x)|\leq\epsilon,\forall\ 1\leq i\leq n \}$. More generally, weak topology makes sense whenever we have a pairing $(X,Y)$ of spaces, see the wiki article.

Now this definition works for any normed space, so in particular it also works for $X^*$: the weak topology on $X^*$ is the coarsest topology that makes $f\mapsto \chi(f)$ continuous for each $\chi\in X^{**}$, the dual space of $X^*$. However there is another natural topology on $X^*$, where we only consider those $\chi$ that comes from elements in $X$, namely we have an embedding $i:X\rightarrow X^{**},x\mapsto\chi_x$ where $\chi_x(f):=f(x)$. This is the weak* topology. In general the weak* topology is weaker than the weak topology on $X^*$, but if $i(X)=X^{**}$ then obviously they are the same (the converse is also true, see here)

The weak/weak* topology is much weaker than the norm topology. Every weak open neighborhood of origin is norm-unbounded. The closed unit ball of $X^*$ is compact in weak* topology (Alaoglu Theorem), while it is far from compact under the norm topology, unless $X$ is finite dimensional.

Hilbert space is an important special case. It is reflexive by Riesz representation theorem, so no need to distinguish weak and weak* topology. Say $(e_i)_{i=1}^\infty$ is an orthonormal basis for the Hilbert space $H$, so each $x\in H$ can be expanded as $x=\sum x_ie_i$, also denoted as $(x_1,x_2,x_3,...)$. Then on any norm-bounded set, weak topology is exactly componentwise convergence, i.e., a sequence $x^{(n)}$ converges to $y$ iff $x^{(n)}_i$ converges to $y_i$ for every $i$. This is a good exercise, you can also find it in this note. There is also an operator version.

183orbco3
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  • Thank you for your reply. I guess part of what confuses me is that isn't every $f \in X^*$ already continuous by definition? Or is that with respect to the norm topology, and hence we construct a coarser topology in which they are topology (i.e. the weak topology)? – CBBAM Jun 10 '22 at 22:51
  • @CBBAM Of course every $f\in X^*$ is already continuous in the norm topology of $X$. The weak topology has "just enough" open sets so that each $f$ is still continuous, which makes it a convenient topology in some situation. As I said in my answer, the weak topology is much coarser than the norm topology. – 183orbco3 Jun 10 '22 at 22:56
  • As a follow up I have been reading on on the operator topologies. From what I understand, a basic open set in the strong operator topology is of the form ${T \in L(X,Y) : |Tx|_Y < \epsilon }$ where $|\cdot|_Y$ is the norm in $Y$ and $x \in X$, $\epsilon$ are fixed. Similarly, a basic open set in the weak operator topology is of the form ${ T \in L(X,Y) : |f(Tx)| < \epsilon}$ for fixed $\epsilon > 0$, $x \in X$, and $f \in Y^*$. Is this right? – CBBAM Jun 11 '22 at 06:10
  • With these definitions, I cannot see why the weak operator topology is necessarily weaker than the strong operator topology. Is there some way to visualize this fact? – CBBAM Jun 11 '22 at 06:15
  • @CBBAM $|f(Tx)|\leq|f|\cdot|Tx|_Y$ by definition of $|f|$, so the seminorm $T\mapsto |f(Tx)|$ is controlled by $T\mapsto|Tx|_Y$ – 183orbco3 Jun 11 '22 at 07:37
  • Are you taking $|f|$ in the operator norm? – CBBAM Jun 11 '22 at 07:56
  • @CBBAM In the standard norm on $Y^*$, so yes if you regard the underlying field ($\mathbb{R}$ or $\mathbb{C}$) as a normed space. – 183orbco3 Jun 11 '22 at 07:59
  • I believe I might be confused, how does it follow that $|f(Tx)| \leq |f| \cdot |Tx|_Y$? I see why this holds if we consider $|f(Tx)|$, but not with an absolute value. I take it that because the first seminorm you mentioned is controlled by the second, that proves the weak operator topology is coarser than the strong operator topology? – CBBAM Jun 11 '22 at 08:03
  • Also, is my definition for the basic open sets (centered at 0) correct for the two topologies? – CBBAM Jun 11 '22 at 08:04
  • Honestly I have only seen the definitions for Hilbert space before, but your definitions seem to coincide with that in the case of Hilbert space, so yes I think they are correct. It really is just definition of norm of functional: for a normed space $E$ and a functional $f\in E^*$, $|f|=\sup{\frac{|f(u)|}{|u|_E}: u\in E\setminus{0}}$, and it follows that $|f(u)|\leq |f|\cdot|u|_E$ for any $u$, including $0$. Take $E=Y$ and $u=Tx$. – 183orbco3 Jun 11 '22 at 08:09
  • Btw for Hilbert space there is some sort of visualization as I mentioned at the end of my answer. Fix an orthonormal basis, and an operator $T:H\rightarrow H$ is like an infinite matrix whose $(i,j)$-th entry is $(Te_i,e_j)$. Again on norm-bounded set, weak topology is entry-wise convergence and strong topology is row-wise convergence (or column, I'm not sure). – 183orbco3 Jun 11 '22 at 08:14