It may seem that this question is a duplicate of : Axiom of Regularity and Axiom of regularity definition
But, my issue is not with the Axiom itself. I understand its need and use. But the definition has me confused. I've taken the expression from Wikipedia https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Axiom_of_regularity
$${\displaystyle \forall x\,(x\neq \varnothing \rightarrow \exists y(y\in x\ \land y\cap x=\varnothing )).}$$
I understand its implication $x \cap \{x\} = \varnothing$.
But, my issue lies with the $(y \in x \land y \cap x)$.
For instance consider a set:
$$R=\big\{\; \{1,2\},\;\{3,4,\{1,2\}\}\;\big\}.$$ Then take the two subsets:
$$r1=\{1,2\} \space \text{ meaning } \space r1\in R$$. $$r2=\{3,4,\{1,2\}\} \space \text{ meaning } \space r2\in R$$.
Would it be wrong to do this?
$$r2 \cap R = \{1,2\} = r1$$.
If not, doesn't this mean that $(r2 \in R \land r2 \cap R) \neq \varnothing$ contradicts with part of the axiom $\exists y(y \in x \land y \cap x) = \varnothing$ ?
Or is the axiom meaning that the instance of $\{1,2\}$ inside $r2$ is not to be considered the same as $r1$ ?
Or am I misunderstanding the semantics of $\exists y(y \in x \land y \cap x) = \varnothing$ ?
Thanks in advance.
EDIT Thanks @RossMillikan/@AsafKaragila I see the error in my understanding $\exists y$. The moment you remove the last disjoint set $r1$ out the $\exists y$ ceases to be true! what was I thinking!?