One question in Spanier's Algebraic Topology Theorem 1.4.12

Asked Dec 18 '21 at 10:01

Active Dec 18 '21 at 10:01

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In Spanier's Algebraic Topology Chapter 1 Section 4, he says that $Z_f \times I$ has the topology coinduced by the two maps as the following, which I do not understand:

Why $Z_f \times I$ equipped with the product topology has the topology coinduced ?

asked Dec 18 '21 at 10:01

Skyskie

See here. The point is that $Z_f\times I$ is a quotient of $X\times I\times I\sqcup Y\times I$. – Tyrone Dec 19 '21 at 20:04

One question in Spanier's Algebraic Topology Theorem 1.4.12

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