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Let $r\ge 1$. For $r-1\leq x \le r+1$ we define $f(x)=\arccos\left(\frac{x^2 + r^2 - 1}{2 r x}\right)$. Now let $g:[1,\infty)\to\mathbb{R}$ be given by $$g(r)=\frac{\int_{r-1}^{r+1}{r(f(x))^2\,dx}}{\int_{r-1}^{r+1}{ f(x)\,dx}}.$$ I want to show that $g$ is a monotonically decreasing function.

Notes

  1. Numerically, this looks to be almost certainly true.
  2. I have already proved that $g$ has some interesting properties; for instance $g(1)=\pi-2$ and $\lim_{r\to \infty} g(r)=\frac{8}{3\pi}$. But ideally I'd like to show that the function decreases monotonically between these two values.
  3. I've tried looking at the derivative - but it seems too ghastly to be useful!
Auslander
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    $f(x)$ is the angle of a triangle with sides $r,x,1$ but I can't find links at the moment. – TheSimpliFire May 02 '21 at 09:10
  • Also, $\int f(x)^2,dx$ represents the moment and $\int f(x),dx$ represents the mass. – TheSimpliFire May 02 '21 at 09:41
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    @TheSimpliFire. Very astute! That's very much in the direction the problem that I'm working on. Suppose you're parachuted into a circular forest of radius $1$. You don't know where you are, but you know the shape of the forest. If your your exit path is a circle of radius $r$, then what is the expected escape length? I'm pretty certain that it's given by the formula I obtained above (it is definitely true when $r=\infty$, i.e. a linear escape path). The monotonicity result would then show that no circle beats a larger circle and that that no circle beats linear. – Auslander May 02 '21 at 10:07
  • Can you try to just show that for given endpoints, increasing curvature increases length? – Eric May 07 '21 at 02:56
  • @Eric, that is true on average, considering every point and every angle. But point-wise, it is not true. For a fixed point very close to the edge, the average length to the boundary increases with curvature! This took me by surprise too. – Auslander May 07 '21 at 10:51

2 Answers2

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This answer was based on the following: suppose you are dividing integrals $\int g(x,y) dx/\int h(x,y) dx$ and at each $x$, $g(x,y)/h(x,y)$ is decreasing in $y$. Then the combination of these should tend towards $\int g(x,y) dx/\int h(x,y) dx$ decreasing in $y$ too.

If we remove $r$ from the limits by substituting $x = r+u$ and divide the terms we get $r \cos^{-1}\left(\frac{(r+u)^2+r^2-1}{2(r+u)r} \right)$ which if you graph is monotonically decreasing in $r$. So this is our case.

The first part of the problem was three conditions which should be sufficient for this idea to work.

(i) Each individual $g(x,y)/h(x,y)$ should be decreasing in $y$.
(ii) the fractions are ordered from greatest ratio to least least (not necessary, but helpful).
(iii) a fraction with the greater ratio loses more relative size than the fraction with a smaller ratio.

The second part of the problem was finding a transformation which made verifying the conditions possible.


Here is a diagram.

diagram

$AB, AB', AE$ are $x$ for different values. By Law of Cosines $1 = r^2 + x^2 - 2rx \cos \theta$ so $\theta = f(x)$.

Note $\theta$ is maximized when $x = AE = \sqrt{r^2-1}$, increasing for $x< AE$, and decreasing for $x> AE$.

Let $y = \pi(x) = FB = x - r \cos \theta = \frac{x^2-r^2+1}{2x}$. $\pi(x)$ will be used to center the integrals.

$\pi(x)$ is a strictly increasing bijection from $[r-1,r+1]$ to $[-1,1]$. It can be shown

$$ \pi^{-1}(y) = y + \sqrt{r^2 + y^2 - 1} $$ $$f(\pi^{-1}(y)) = \cos^{-1}\left(\frac{\sqrt{r^2+y^2-1}}{r}\right) $$

$g(r)$ becomes

\begin{align} g(r) &= \frac{\int_{-1}^0 rf(\pi^{-1}(y))^2 \pi^{-1}(y)_y \ dy + \int_{0}^1 rf(\pi^{-1}(y))^2 \pi^{-1}(y)_y \ dy}{\int_{-1}^0 f(\pi^{-1}(y)) \pi^{-1}(y)_y \ dy + \int_0^1 f(\pi^{-1}(y)) \pi^{-1}(y)_y \ dy} \\ &= \frac{\int_0^1 rf(\pi^{-1}(y))^2 \left(\pi^{-1}(-y)_y + \pi^{-1}(y)_y\right) \ dy}{\int_0^1 f(\pi^{-1}(y)) \left(\pi^{-1}(-y)_y + \pi^{-1}(y)_y\right) \ dy} \\ &= \frac{\int_0^1 rf(\pi^{-1}(y))^2 \ dy}{\int_0^1 f(\pi^{-1}(y)) \ dy} \end{align}

This can be integrated in terms of elliptical integrals, but I couldn't make much sense of it.

Denote $A_y(r) = r\cos^{-1}\left(\frac{\sqrt{y^2+r^2-1}}{r} \right)^2$ and $B_y(r)= \cos^{-1}\left(\frac{\sqrt{y^2+r^2-1}}{r} \right)$ for $y\geq 0, r \geq 1$.

We intend to apply the following to the Riemann Sums of $A_y(r)$ and $B_y(r)$.

$\textbf{Claim}$: Suppose $a^{(k)}_i, b^{(k)}_i, i = 1,...,n, \ k = 1, 2$ are positive numbers such that

(1) $a_i^{(k)}/b_i^{(k)} \geq a_j^{(k)}/b_j^{(k)}$ for $i \leq j$
(2) $a_i^{(1)}/b_i^{(1)} \geq a_i^{(2)}/b_i^{(2)}$
(3) $b_i^{(2)}/b_i^{(1)} \leq b_j^{(2)}/ b_j^{(1)} \leq 1$ for $i\leq j$.

Then $$ \frac{a^{(1)}_1 + \cdots + a^{(1)}_n}{b^{(1)}_1 + \cdots + b^{(1)}_n} \geq \frac{a^{(2)}_1 + \cdots + a^{(2)}_n}{b^{(2)}_1 + \cdots + b^{(2)}_n} $$

$Proof$. By strong induction on $n$. Case $n=1$ is trivial. For $n=2$ \begin{align} \frac{a_1^{(1)} + a_2^{(1)}}{b_1^{(1)}+b_2^{(1)}} &= \frac{\frac{a_1^{(1)}}{b_1^{(1)}}b_1^{(1)} + \frac{a_2^{(1)}}{b_2^{(1)}}b_2^{(1)}}{b_1^{(1)}+b_2^{(1)}} \\ &\stackrel{(2)}{\geq} \frac{\frac{a_1^{(2)}}{b_1^{(2)}}b_1^{(1)} + \frac{a_2^{(2)}}{b_2^{(2)}}b_2^{(1)}}{b_1^{(1)}+b_2^{(1)}} \\ &= \frac{a_1^{(2)}}{b_1^{(2)}}(1 - t) + \frac{a_2^{(2)}}{b_2^{(2)}}t \end{align} where $t = \frac{1}{b_1^{(1)}/b_2^{(1)} + 1}$. Note because of $(1)$ the last equation is monotonically decreasing in $t$. Also by $(3), \ t \leq \frac{1}{b_1^{(2)}/b_2^{(2)} + 1}$. It follows \begin{align} \text{RHS} &\geq \frac{a_1^{(2)}}{b_1^{(2)}}\left(1 - \frac{1}{b_1^{(2)}/b_2^{(2)} + 1} \right) + \frac{a_2^{(2)}}{b_2^{(2)}}\frac{1}{b_1^{(2)}/b_2^{(2)} + 1} \\ &= \frac{a_1^{(2)} + a_2^{(2)}}{b_1^{(2)}+b_2^{(2)}} \end{align} as desired.

Case $n= N+1$. Let $c^{(k)} = a_1^{(k)} + \cdots + a_n^{(k)}, \ d^{(k)} = b_1^{(k)} + \cdots + b_n^{(k)}, k=1,2$. We will verify $(1), (2), (3)$ for $c^{(k)}, d^{(k)}, a_{N+1}^{(k)}, b_{N+1}^{(k)}$ and apply case $n=2$.

Since $\frac{a_{n+1}^{(k)}}{b_{n+1}^{(k)}} \leq \frac{a_{i}^{(k)}}{b_{i}^{(k)}}$ by $(1)$, it follows

$$ \frac{c^{(k)}}{d^{(k)}} \geq \frac{a_{n+1}^{(k)}}{b_{n+1}^{(k)}} $$

This verifies $(1)$. Since case $n=N$ holds $$ \frac{c^{(1)}}{d^{(1)}} \geq \frac{c^{(2)}}{d^{(2)}} $$ Also by $(2), \ \frac{a_{n+1}^{(1)}}{b_{n+1}^{(1)}} \geq \frac{a_{n+1}^{(2)}}{b_{n+1}^{(2)}} $. This verifies $(2)$.

Lastly $(3)$ holds since $$ b_i^{(2)}/b_i^{(1)} \leq b_{n+1}^{(2)}/ b_{n+1}^{(1)} \leq 1, \ \ i = 1,...,{n+1} $$ implies $$ \frac{d^{(2)}}{d^{(1)}} = \frac{b_1^{(2)} + \cdots + b_n^{(2)}}{b_1^{(1)} + \cdots + b_1^{(n)}} \leq \frac{b_{n+1}^{(2)}}{b_{n+1}^{(1)}} \leq 1 $$ Applying case $n=2$ verifies case $n=N+1$. $$\tag*{$\blacksquare$}$$

We also claim

$\mathbf{Claim}$:

(i) $A_y(r)/B_y(r)$ is monotonically decreasing in $y$ for fixed $r$.
(ii) $A_y(r)/B_y(r)$ is monotonically decreasing in $r$ for fixed $y$.
(iii) For fixed $r_1 \leq r_2$, $B_y(r_2)/B_y(r_1) \leq 1$ is increasing in $y$.

$Proof$. (i) Note $A_y(r)/B_y(r) = rf(\pi^{-1}(y))$. By construction, on $[0,1], \ \theta = f(\pi^{-1}(-y))$ is decreasing so $A_y(r)/B_y(r) = r \theta$ is.

(ii) The arc $r\theta$ has fixed height $CF = \sqrt{1-y^2}$, but has longest length when $r=1$, with length decreasing and approaching $CF$ as $r$ increases.

(iii) We have $$ \frac{B_y(r_2)}{B_y(r_1)} = \frac{f(\pi^{-1}(y))_{r = r_2}}{f(\pi^{-1}(y))_{r=r_1}} $$ Differentiating $$ \frac{d}{dy} f(\pi^{-1}(y)) = \frac{-1}{\sqrt{1-y^2}} \frac{y}{\sqrt{r^2+y^2 - 1}} $$ Then by the quotient rule, verifying $\frac{d}{dy} \frac{f(\pi^{-1}(y))_{r = r_2}}{f(\pi^{-1}(y))_{r=r_1}} \geq 0$ is equivalent to checking

$$ -\cos^{-1}\left(\frac{\sqrt{r_1^2 + y^2-1}}{r_1} \right)\frac{1}{\sqrt{y^2 + r_2^2 -1}} + \cos^{-1}\left(\frac{\sqrt{r_2^2 + y^2-1}}{r_2} \right)\frac{1}{\sqrt{y^2 + r_1^2 -1}} \geq 0 $$ Note $AF = \sqrt{r^2+y^2-1}$. The inequality states the arc $FH$ is greater than the arc $FJ$ in the following diagram.

diagram of inequality

This is true since if $\theta =\angle FA_2K$ then arc $FH = \sqrt{1-y^2} \ \theta \cot \theta$ is decreasing from $\theta = 0$ to $\pi/2$. The claim follows.

Writing $g(r)$ as a quotient of Riemann Sum's $$ g(r) = \lim_{\max \Delta x_i \rightarrow 0} \frac{\sum_{i=1}^n A_{x_i^*}(r) \Delta x_i}{\sum_{k=1}^n B_{x_i^*}(r) \Delta x_i} $$ where $x_k^*$ are points in the intervals associated with $\Delta x_k$.

Let $r_2 \geq r_1$. In the first claim if we identify $a_i^{(k)} = A_{x_i^*}(r_k), b_i^{(k)} = B_{x_i^*}(r_k)$ then (1), (2), and (3) follow from (i), (ii), and (iii).

Applying the first claim

$$ \frac{\sum_{i=1}^n A_{x_i^*}(r_1) \Delta x_i}{\sum_{k=1}^n B_{x_i^*}(r_1) \Delta x_i} \geq \frac{\sum_{i=1}^n A_{x_i^*}(r_2) \Delta x_i}{\sum_{k=1}^n B_{x_i^*}(r_2) \Delta x_i}. $$

Taking the limit as $\Delta x_i \rightarrow 0$ gives $g(r_1) \geq g(r_2)$ as desired.

  • this is a mammoth amount of work, and a lovely use of a Riemann integral. I like that you've reduced the question to the behaviour of function that has no integrals ,but I do fear that the function is sufficiently nasty to make the search of a proof of (i),(ii) and (iii) futile! – Auslander May 09 '21 at 12:14
  • I haven’t yet had the time to wade through this, but it looks promising! @TheSimpliFire suggested below a paper could come of this (involving contributors here). It is related to the “minimal expected distance” version of the problem linked here. Seems like almost nothing has been published on this variation of this famous problem. https://www.maa.org/sites/default/files/pdf/upload_library/22/Ford/Finch645-654.pdf – Auslander May 10 '21 at 09:42
  • I'm writing a second solution simply integrating. And that sounds interesting. – Stephen Harrison May 10 '21 at 09:54
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    @Auslander , tinkle hoy, I can set up an Overleaf space between us and (@user below) for discussion if you want. – TheSimpliFire May 10 '21 at 12:40
2

$\def\c{\cos\phi}\def\L{\operatorname{\cal L}_r}\def\F{\operatorname F}\def\E{\operatorname E}\def\f{\rho_r}$

Not a proof but a way to simplify the problem.

Let $x=\sqrt{r^2-\sin^2\phi}-\cos\phi$. Then: $$ \frac{x^2+r^2-1}{2xr}=\frac{r^2-\sin^2\phi+\cos^2\phi-2\cos\phi\sqrt{r^2-\sin^2\phi}+r^2-1}{2r\left(\sqrt{r^2-\sin^2\phi}-\cos\phi\right)}=\sqrt{1-\frac{\sin^2\phi}{r^2}} $$ so that: $$\begin{align} \int_{r-1}^{r+1}\arccos\left(\frac{x^2+r^2-1}{2xr}\right)dx &=\int_0^\pi\arcsin\left(\frac{\sin\phi}r\right)\,d\left(\sqrt{r^2-\sin^2\phi}-\cos\phi\right)\\ &=-\int_0^\pi\frac{\sqrt{r^2-\sin^2\phi}-\cos\phi}{\sqrt{1-\frac{\sin^2\phi}{r^2}}} \frac{\cos\phi}rd\phi\\ &=\int_0^\pi\frac{\cos^2\phi}{\sqrt{r^2-\sin^2\phi}}d\phi\\ &=2\int_0^{\pi/2}\frac{\cos^2\phi}{\sqrt{r^2-\sin^2\phi}}d\phi\\ &\stackrel{\sin\phi=r\sin u}=2\int_0^{\arcsin\frac1r}\sqrt{1-r^2\sin^2 u}\;du.\\ %&=2\left[r\operatorname{E}\left(\frac1r\right)-\left(r-\frac1r\right)\operatorname{K}\left(\frac1r\right)\right], \end{align}$$

Similarly: $$\begin{align} \int_{r-1}^{r+1}\left[\arccos\left(\frac{x^2+r^2-1}{2xr}\right)\right]^2dx &=4\int_0^{\pi/2}\frac{\cos^2\phi}{\sqrt{r^2-\sin^2\phi}}\arcsin\left(\frac{\sin\phi}r\right)d\phi\\ &=4\int_0^{\arcsin\frac1r}u\sqrt{1-r^2\sin^2 u}\;du.\\ %&\stackrel{\sin\phi=r\sin u}=2\\ %&=2\left[r\operatorname{E}\left(\frac1r\right)-\left(r-\frac1r\right)\operatorname{K}\left(\frac1r\right)\right], \end{align}$$

Introducing: $$ \f(x)=\sqrt{1-r^2\sin^2 x};\quad \L[\psi(x)]=\int_0^{\arcsin\frac1r}\psi(x)dx $$ the condition that the function $g(x)$ is decreasing can be written as: $$ \frac d{dr}\left(\frac{r\L[x\f(x)]}{\L[\f(x)]}\right)<0, $$ which is equivalent to $$ \frac{\L\left[\dfrac x{\f(x)}\right]}{\L[x\f(x)]}-\frac{\L\left[\dfrac 1{\f(x)}\right]}{\L[\f(x)]}>1.\tag1 $$

Further introducing: $$ f(x,r)=\frac{\F(x\arcsin\frac1r\,|\,r^2)}{\arcsin\frac1r},\quad e(x,r)=\frac{\E(x\arcsin\frac1r\,|\,r^2)}{\arcsin\frac1r}, $$ where $\F(x)$ and $\E(x)$ are the elliptic integrals of the first and second kind, respectvely, the inequality $(1)$ can be written in explicit form as: $$\frac {f(1,r)-\int_0^1 f(x,r)\,dx}{e(1,r)-\int_0^1 e(x,r)\,dx} -\frac{f(1,r)}{e(1,r)}>1.\tag2 $$ The expression $(2)$ looks not very complicated but it is not obvious how to prove it. Yet it can be easily shown that the left-hand-side tends to $1$ as $r$ goes to infinity.

user
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  • $g$ decreasing means that $$r\left(\arcsin\frac1r-\frac{\int_0^{\arcsin\frac1r}E(u\mid r^2),du}{E(\arcsin\frac1r\mid r^2)}\right)$$ is decreasing. The derivative is unpleasant. – TheSimpliFire May 09 '21 at 09:08
  • How will you prove that this decrease? My inequality can be rewritten as: $$\frac {F(\arcsin\frac1r|r^2)-\frac1{\arcsin\frac1r}\int_0^{\arcsin\frac1r}F(u|r^2)du} {E(\arcsin\frac1r|r^2)-\frac1{\arcsin\frac1r}\int_0^{\arcsin\frac1r}E(u|r^2)du} -\frac{F(\arcsin\frac1r|r^2)}{E(\arcsin\frac1r|r^2)}>1, $$ which looks not much more complicated than your expression, but requires only a comparison with a number. – user May 09 '21 at 10:29
  • Gosh. Ok. So I'm starting to realise why I hadn't gotten anywhere with this. Such a tricky problem from such simple origins. – Auslander May 09 '21 at 12:04
  • @Auslander Might mean your problem can turn into a publication if it is solved. – TheSimpliFire May 09 '21 at 14:37
  • @TheSimpliFire, I’d be happy share my (very minimal) progress to date with you and others who have helped out here - co-authored article def possible Stack exchange doesn’t make it easy to exchange details non-publicly! Suggestions? – Auslander May 09 '21 at 21:23