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Hi i am reading An introduction to manifolds by Loring and have some doubts in remark 8.2. It is written that

If $U$ is an open set containing $p$ in $M$ then the algebra $C_{p}^{\infty}(U)$ of germs of $C^\infty$ functions in $U$ at $p$ is the same as $C_{p}^{\infty}(M)$.Hence, $T_pU=T_pM$.

My first question is:

  1. How do we know that the algebra $C_{p}^{\infty}(U)=C_{p}^{\infty}(M)$. I know that, the equivalence class of $(f,U)$ is called the germ of $f$ at $p$.

I have a second question which is related to the differential of a map. It is written that:

The equation $(F_{*}(X_p))f=X_p(f\circ F)$ is independent of the representative of the germ.

My second question is that

  1. here in the above equation $f$ is the representative of a germ and it is appearing inside the equation then how this equation is independent of the representative $f$?

For reference i am attaching the screenshots where i have highlighted the part where these two statements are mentioned.

Screenshot 1Screenshot 2

Jason
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    Intuitively, a germ at a point $p$ is a function defined in an arbitrary small neighborhood of $p$. If you take a germ of $M$ at $p$, then it is uniquely determined by its values in a very small neighborhood of $p$, which can be taken inside an fixed $U$. That is, 1. is true by definition really. Can you try to prove it with this intuitive idea in mind ? For 2., there is again no problem because intuitively, the derivative of a function $f$ at $p$ only depends on what $f$ is on an arbitrary small neighborhood of $p$. You should try to write things down. – Pierre Elis Feb 08 '21 at 11:04

1 Answers1

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For $X= M, U$ let $G_p^\infty(X)$ denote the set of all pairs $(f ,V)$, where $U$ is an open neighborhood of $p$ in $X$ and $f : V \to \mathbb R$ is a $C^\infty$-function. Then $C_p^\infty(X) = G_p^\infty(X)/\sim_X \phantom{.}$ where $(f,V) \sim_X (g,W)$ if there exists an open neighborhood $W$ of $p$ in $X$ such that $W \subset U \cap V$ and $f \mid_W = g \mid_W$.

Since $U$ is open in $M$, we have $G_p^\infty(U) \subset G_p^\infty(M)$, but if $U \subsetneqq M$, then certainly $G_p^\infty(M)$ has elements $(V,f)$ such that $V \not\subset U$, i.e. $G_p^\infty(M)$ has more elements than $G_p^\infty(U)$. For $(V,f), (W,g) \in G_p^\infty(U)$ we have $(V,f) \sim_U (W,g)$ if and only if $(V,f) \sim_M (W,g)$, i.e. we get an injective function $$i : C_p^\infty(U) \to C_p^\infty(M), i([(V,f)]_U) = [(V,f)]_M $$ which is easily seen to be an algebra homomorphism. This map is in fact a bijection: Given $(V,f) \in G_p^\infty(M)$, we have $(V,f) \sim_M (V \cap U, f \mid_{V \cap U})$. But clearly $(V \cap U, f \mid_{V \cap U}) \in G_p^\infty(U)$.

More formally, let $\phi : N \to M$ be smooth. Then $\phi$ induces a function $G^\infty_p \phi : G^\infty_{f(q)} M \to G^\infty_q N, G^\infty_p \phi (U,f) = (\phi^{-1}(U), f \circ \phi\mid_{\phi^{-1}(U)})$. Clearly $(U,f) \sim_M (V,g)$, then $G^\infty_p \phi (U,f) \sim_N G^\infty_p \phi (V,g)$. Therefore we get an induced $$C^\infty_p \phi : C^\infty_{f(q)} M \to C^\infty_q N$$
which is easily seen to be an algebra homomorphism.

Now let $\iota : U \to M$ denote the inclusion map which is clearly smooth. Then $C^\infty_p \iota : C^\infty_p M \to C^\infty_p U$ is easily seen to be the inverse algebra isomorphism of $i : C^\infty_p U \to C^\infty_p M$.

In that sense $C_p^\infty(U)$ is the same as $C_p^\infty(M)$. But be aware that, strictly speaking, we do not have $C_p^\infty(U) = C_p^\infty(M)$, instead we have the canonical algebra isomorphism $i : C_p^\infty(U) \to C_p^\infty(M)$ with inverse $C^\infty_p \iota : C^\infty_p M \to C^\infty_p U$.

Similarly it is an abuse of notation to write $T_pU = T_pM$, but again we have a canonical isomorphism $T_pU \to T_pM$.

In fact, each algebra homomorphism (isomorphism) $\mathfrak h : \mathfrak A \to \mathfrak B$ induces a vector space homomorphism (isomorphism) $$\mathscr D(\mathfrak h) : \mathscr D(\mathfrak B) \to \mathscr D(\mathfrak A), \mathscr D(\mathfrak h)(D) = D \circ \mathfrak h .$$ If we take our above canonical algebra isomorphism $i : C_p^\infty(U) \to C_p^\infty(M)$ we get a canonical vector space isomorphism $\mathscr D(i) : T_p M = \mathscr D(C_p^\infty(M)) \to T_pU = \mathscr D(C_p^\infty(U))$ with inverse $$\mathscr D(C^\infty_p \iota) : T_pU \to T_pM .$$ The isomorphism $\mathscr D(C^\infty_p \iota)$ is nothing else than the differential $d_p\iota$ of $\iota$ at $p$. So writing $T_pU = T_pM$ is a sloppy way to say that $d_p\iota : T_pU \to T_pM$ is a canonical isomorphism.

Concerning your second question:

$X_p$ is a derivation on $C_p^\infty(N)$. Given $(V,f) \in G_{F(p)}^\infty(M)$, the map $f \circ F : F^{-1}(V) \to \mathbb R$ gives us an element $(F^{-1}(V),f \circ F) \in G_p^\infty(N)$. It is easy to see that if $(V,f) \sim_M (W,g)$, then $(F^{-1}(V),f \circ F) \sim_N (F^{-1}(W),g \circ F)$. This means that the map $C_{F(p)}^\infty(M) \to C_p^\infty(N), [(V,f)]_M \mapsto [(F^{-1}(V),f \circ F)]_N $ is well-defined.

Instead of $(F_{*}(X_p))f=X_p(f\circ F)$ Tu should have written $$(F_{*}(X_p))([(V,f)]_M) = X_p([(F^{-1}(V),f\circ F)]_N) .$$ But I think his little abuse of notation is acceptable.

Update:

The above algebra isomorphism $i : C_p^\infty(U) \to C_p^\infty(M)$ has the special feature that its definition is completely obvious and natural. In fact, it does not involve any choices, but is induced by the set inclusion $G_p^\infty(U) \hookrightarrow G_p^\infty(M)$. If you consider germ algebras $C_p^\infty(M), C_q^\infty(N)$ for manifolds $M, N$ of dimension $n $, you will see that they are always isomorphic, but in general all isomorphisms $\beta: C_p^\infty(M) \to C_q^\infty(N)$ involve choices which do not make $\beta$ "natural" in any sense. In fact, you can choose charts $\phi : U \to B^n$ around $p$ on $M$ and $\psi : V \to B^n$ around $q$ on $N$ (where $B^n$ is an open ball in $\mathbb R^n$ with center $0$) such that $\phi(p) = \psi(q) = 0$. Then $C_p^\infty(M) \approx C_p^\infty(U)$ and $C_q^\infty(N) \approx C_q^\infty(V)$ in a natural way and $C_p^\infty(U) \approx C_0^\infty(B^n), C_q^\infty(V) \approx C_0^\infty(B^n)$, but the last two isomorphisms are induced by $\phi, \psi$ (which have be chosen arbitarily), i.e. are not natural in our sense.

For that reason one frequently writes $C_p^\infty(U) = C_p^\infty(M)$ which would be inadequate in general for $C_p^\infty(M)$ and $C_q^\infty(N)$.

This transfers to tangent spaces: $T_pU$ and $T_pM$ are isomorphic in a unique obvious way, the vector space isomorphism being induced by the algebra isomorphism $i: C_p^\infty(U) \to C_p^\infty(M)$ and its inverse $C^\infty_p \iota : C_p^\infty(M) \to C_p^\infty(U)$. For that reason one frequently writes $T_pU = T_pM$. Note that all tangent spaces $T_pM$ and $T_qN$ are isomorphic, but finding an isomorphism involves choices which prevents writing $T_pM = T_qN$.

Paul Frost
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  • Ok i have some things to clarify: First is that,We(Loring) "identify" a tangent vector as a derivation at a point $p$. So, if we can show that two vector spaces are isomorphic,does this mean we can write the element of one vector space as a linear combination of basis elements of the other? Loring has done this many times in the book.My 2nd question is, if we write $T_p U\simeq T_p M$ and $C_p^\infty(U)\simeq C_p^\infty(M)$ where $\simeq$ denotes isomorphism, would this be more correct and he should have used the $\simeq$ symbol? – Jason Feb 09 '21 at 05:19
  • If two vector spaces A and B are isomorphic, can we write any arbitrary vector of space A as a linear combination of basis elements of space B ? What i mean is that are those two spaces just differ in name and are equivalent in all other respects. – Jason Feb 09 '21 at 07:24
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    Let two vector spaces $A, B$ be isomorphic via an isomorphism $\phi : A \to B$ and let the vectors $b_i$ form a basis of $B$. It is impossible to write a vector of space A as a linear combination of the $b_i$ (because that produces a vector in $B$), but we can write it as a linear combination of the $\phi^{-1}(b_i)$ which form a basis of $A$. If Tu uses such a representation, then it is again an abuse of notation, However, I guess he only uses that in the special situation that we have a canonical isomorphism $A \to B$ in which one often writes $A = B$. See my update. – Paul Frost Feb 09 '21 at 09:43
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    It would be more accurate to write $T_pU \approx T_pM$ instead of $T_pU = T_pM$, but the point is that among all possible isomorphisms $T_pU \to T_pM$ there is a unique obvious (or natural', or canonical*) one. For that reason TU writes $T_pU = T_pM$. – Paul Frost Feb 09 '21 at 09:48
  • Paul Frost aha so it's indeed easy to say in Section 8 that $\iota$ is immersion and submersion just because $T_pU=T_pM$, but otherwise, we really have to borrow from Section 11 or even Section 13? Please see my answer here and this question here – BCLC Apr 30 '21 at 10:34
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    @BCLC Yes, for an open $S \subset M$ it is more or less obvious. In fact the "equation" $T_pS = T_pM$ is a sloppy way to say that $d\iota_p : T_pS \to T_pM$ is an isomorphism. – Paul Frost Apr 30 '21 at 10:53
  • Right thanks Paul Frost. Anyhoo is my answer correct please? – BCLC Apr 30 '21 at 11:12
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    @BCLC Yes, it is correct! – Paul Frost Apr 30 '21 at 12:24
  • Thank you @PaulFrost! – BCLC Apr 30 '21 at 12:25
  • @PaulFrost I'm learning elementary differential geometry and your answer is extremely valuable. Wish I could upvote more than once :) – J. De Ro Sep 21 '22 at 16:13
  • A tangent space does not necessarily equal the whole dual space, because maps in a tangent space are required to satisfy the product rule, in addition to linearity. – Imperton Oct 09 '24 at 13:13