The question is to prove that $((f *g)*h) (x) = (f*(g*h)) (x)\\$
So far, I have the following:
\begin{align*} ((f \ast g) \ast h) (x) &= \int^x_0 (f \ast g)(t) h (x-t) dt\\ &=\int^x_0 \left[\int^t_0 f(h)g(t-h) dh\right] h(x-t) dt\\ &= \int^t_0 \int^x_0 g(t-h) h(x-t) f(h) dt \quad dh\\ &= \int^t_0 \int^{\alpha = x - h}_{\alpha = -h} g(\alpha) h(x - h - \alpha) f(h) d\alpha \quad dh, \quad \text{where } \alpha = t - h \Rightarrow d\alpha = dt\\ \end{align*}
I'm stuck here because somehow, I need: $$\int^{\alpha = x - h}_{\alpha = 0} \text{instead of} \int^{\alpha = x - h}_{\alpha = -h}$$
I'm aware that there are different definitions of convolution that go from $(-\infty, +\infty)$ that might simply this, but I'm wondering how to do for the above bounds.
Is there something I did incorrectly? It's been a while since I've learned Fubini's theorem, so I may be missing up the bounds somehow. Thank you!