Suppose I have a definite integral on a closed interval $[A,B]$ where $A < B$ and I'm trying to compute the Riemann integral of a real-valued function $f$.
$$ \text{We compute the value of } \int_A^B f(x) \text{d}x $$
You have already mentioned the notion of a partition $P$. Let's make it a bit more formal. A set of closed intervals $W$ is a partition if and only if:
- The union of all elements of $W$ is a closed interval, no running off to infinity or leaving gaps.
- The intersection of any distinct pair of elements in $W$ is either a single point or the empty set.
Suppose we have a function $L$ from the closed real intervals to the real numbers, we can then define the following expression as our Riemann sum. We also constrain $L$ to only return a real number inside the interval given to it as an argument.
$$ \sum_{x \in P} f(L(x)) \cdot \|x\| \;\;\;\text{where $\|x\|$ is the length of the interval $x$} $$
In the case of a left Riemann sum, $L$ is just the minimum function, in the case of a right Riemann sum, $L$ is the maximum function. You also mention a different kind of Riemann sum where $L$ is the function that minimizes or maximizes the value of $f$ on the given interval. This is also a legitimate type of Riemann sum, although it is not a left or right Riemann sum.
When talking about a general Riemann sum, $L$ is arbitrary. It is constrained to always return a real number inside the interval that was given, but there are no further restrictions placed on $L$.
Next let's imagine an infinite sequence of partitions of $[A, B]$ and call this sequence $S$.
When taking the limit of left and right Riemann sums on partitions $[0,1]$ with evenly spaced subpartitions, we imagine something like the following on $S$.
$$ \left\{\left[0, 1\right]\right\} \;\text{then}\; \left\{\left[0, \frac{1}{2}\right], \left[\frac{1}{2}, 1\right]\right\} \;\text{then}\; \left\{\left[0, \frac{1}{3}\right], \left[\frac{1}{3}, \frac{2}{3}\right], \left[\frac{2}{3}, 1\right]\right\} \;\text{then}\; \cdots $$
However, when talking about a general Riemann sum, we don't prescribe an $S$, but rather impose some conditions on it.
Your book mentions two conditions that are supplied simultaneously. I will list them below and throw in a third constraint to rule out length zero closed intervals like $[3.2, 3.2]$.
- The number of items $S_k$ is $k$
- The limit of the length of the longest item in $S_k$ approaches zero as $k$ approaches infinity.
- None of the subintervals have length zero.
I think it's easier to see why the second condition is thrown in there by picking a bad value for $S$ that will mis-evaluate the definite integral.
[0, 1]
[0, 0.9], [0.9, 1]
[0, 0.9], [0.9, 0.99], [0.99, 1]
[0, 0.9], [0.9, 0.99], [0.99, 0.999], [0.999, 1]
and so on
The length of the longest partition stabilized immediately at $0.9$. We can rule out pathological situations like this by insisting that the length of the maximum segment approaches zero.
So, this gives us the following definition for the Riemann integral.
$$ \int_A^B f(x) \text{d}x = \xi \stackrel{\text{def}}{\iff} \xi = \lim_{k \to \infty} \sum_{x \in S_k} f(L(x)) \cdot \|x\| \;\;\text{for all choices of $S$ and $L$} $$
I will now make two further remarks that might be helpful.
1) We can simplify the conditions imposed on $S$.
We can instead impose only the second condition and third condition on $S$ and only require that the maximum length of a subpartition approaches zero. By forcing the length of the longest subpartition to get smaller and smaller, we necessarily increase the number of subpartitions.
2) The rational indicator function is not Riemann integrable
The rational indicator function, which we will write as $1_{\mathbb{Q}}$ returns $1$ if the argument it is given is rational and $0$ is the arugment it is given is irrational.
So, $1_{\mathbb{Q}}(\pi)$ is zero, but $1_{\mathbb{Q}}(4.5)$ is one.
However, if you imagine taking a closed interval on the real line of any nonzero length, that interval always contains both rational and irrational numbers.
Therefore your choice of $L$ is always relevant. In every single interval, you will have to decide whether to pick a rational or irrational number, so there's no guarantee that your sequence of Riemann sums will ever converge to anything.
In fact, the situation is worse than that. If you always pick an irrational number in every interval, the limit of the Riemann sums is $0$, but if you always pick a rational number in every interval, the limit of the Riemann sums is the length of $[A, B]$.
Also what exactly was the precise definition given for 'general Riemann sum'?
– masiewpao Jul 11 '20 at 20:58