This answer gives a proof of the fact that $(\Bbb Q, +)$ has no maximal subgroup.
Suppose $H$ is any nonzero proper subgroup of $\mathbb Q$ and let $x \in \mathbb Q \setminus H$ and $y \in H, y \neq 0$
Write $\dfrac {y}{x} = \dfrac {a}{b}$ with integers $a,b$. Then $a \neq 0$ and $\dfrac {x}{a} \notin H + \langle x \rangle$ : Suppose $\dfrac {x}{a} = h + nx$ for some $n \in \mathbb Z$ and $h \in H$. Then $x = ah+anx = ah+nby \in H$, which contradicts the hypothesis on $x$. Thus $H$ is not maximal.
Questions:
I understand that the idea is that for any non-zero proper subgroup $H$ of $G$, we can show that there exists another non-zero proper subgroup of $G$ called $H' = H + \langle x \rangle$ that strictly contains $H$.
However, how does the author guess out of the blue that $\frac{x}{a}$ is a good candidate for a number that may not be contained in $H + \langle x \rangle$? The choice of $\frac{x}{a} = \frac{yb}{a^2}$ appears rather arbitrary and is not well explained.