$E(X) = np$ if $X$ is a binomial random variable is the statement I have to prove.
The definition of a binomial random variable tells us that $$P(X=h) = {n \choose k}p^h(1-p)^{n-h}$$
And the definition of expectation for a random variable defined on a sample space $(S,P) $ is $$E(X) = \sum_{a\in \mathbb{R}}aP(X=a)$$
So using that definition I calculate $$0{n\choose 0}p^0(1-p)^{n} + 1{n\choose 1}p^1(1-p)^{n-1}+2{n\choose 2}p^2(1-p)^{n-2}+...+n{n\choose n}p^n(1-p)^{0} = \sum_{k=0}^nk{n\choose k}p^k(1-p)^{n-k}$$
So applying the binomial theorem (with $x=p-1$ and $y=p$) seems obvious, since the binomial theorem says that $$\sum_{k=0}^n{n\choose k}y^kx^{n-k} = (x+y)^n$$
But I can't seem to reconcile this with the result I was trying to prove, which at this point would be proved if I could show that $$\sum_{k=0}^nk{n\choose k}p^k(1-p)^{n-k} = np$$
Does anyone have any hints or ideas as to where to go from here?