In my lecture note, a real-valued random variable is defined as follows:
Then I have an exercise:
Actually, my lecture notes do not have a definition of a random variable generated by other ones.
Since $X$ is a real-valued random variable, $X$ is a measurable function from $(\Omega_1, \mathcal{A}_1, \mathbb{P}_1)$ to $(\mathbb{R}, \mathcal{B}(\mathbb{R}))$. Similarly, $Y$ is a measurable function from $(\Omega_2, \mathcal{A}_2, \mathbb{P}_2)$ to $(\mathbb{R}, \mathcal{B}(\mathbb{R}))$. Because $Z$ is real-valued random variable, it is certainly a measurable function from some probability space $(\Omega, \mathcal{A}, \mathbb{P})$ to $(\mathbb{R}, \mathcal{B}(\mathbb{R}))$.
My confusion:
What does $Z$ actually mean by the notation $Z =X/Y$?
What is $(\Omega, \mathcal{A}, \mathbb{P})$ when we already have $(\Omega_1, \mathcal{A}_1, \mathbb{P}_1)$ and $(\Omega_2, \mathcal{A}_2, \mathbb{P}_2)$?
For $\omega \in \Omega$, what is $Z(\omega)$ when we already have $X(\omega_1), Y(\omega_2)$ for all $\omega_1 \in \Omega_1, \omega_2 \in \Omega_2$?
Thank you so much for your help!

