During a self study I encountered the following issue:
I got a standard Brownian motion $B(t)$ on the interval $[0,1]$ which is $N(0,t)$ distributed by definition, but now I want to figure out the distribution of $B^2(t)$. I assume its a $\chi^2$ - distribution, but im not sure how to show it.
One approach I see is using the fact that $B(1) \sim N(0,1)$ and thus $B^2(1) \sim \chi^2(1)$, but I dont think its correct to rewrite $B^2(t) \stackrel{d}{=} t B(1)$ and receiving a $\chi^2$ - distribution this way.
Can anyone point me in the right direction? Thank you!