Consider a random variable $V$ defined on the probability space $(\Omega, \mathcal{F}, \mathbb{P})$ such that
1) The support of $V$ is an open subset $\mathcal{V}$ of $\mathbb{R}^K$ with strictly positive Lebesgue measure.
2) The distribution of $V$ is absolutely continuous on $\mathcal{V}$ with respect to Lebsgue measure.
Question: which of the two assumptions is sufficient for having $\forall v\in \mathcal{V}$ $$ \mathbb{P}(V=v)=0 $$ ?
My thoughts: I'm tempted to say that 1) is sufficient for the desired conclusion as 1) implies that the support of $\mathcal{V}$ is non-finite. 2) adds more by implying that the cdf of $V$ is continuous and there is a pdf. Could you say whether I'm right or wrong and why?