As above, does $\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}(\sin{n})^n$ converge? And if so, to what value.
From calculating partial sums, it appears it might, but I'm not quite sure how to proceed from there.
As above, does $\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}(\sin{n})^n$ converge? And if so, to what value.
From calculating partial sums, it appears it might, but I'm not quite sure how to proceed from there.
In Khinchin's little book on continued fractions the following theorem (Theorem 24) due to Chebyshev is given: For an irrational $\alpha$ and any $\beta$ there are infinitely many pairs of integers $x>0,y$ such that $|\alpha x-y-\beta|<\frac{3}{x}$.
We apply this for $\alpha=2\pi,\beta=-\frac{\pi}{2}$, and for any solution $x,y$ we get $$|1-\sin y|=|\sin(\alpha x-\beta)-\sin y|\leq|\alpha x-\beta-y|<\frac{3}{y}$$ (we use the inequality $|\sin a-\sin b|\leq|a-b|$, which follows from $|\sin'x|\leq 1$ and the mean value theorem), so $\sin y\geq 1-\frac{3}{y}$, $(\sin y)^y\geq\left(1-\frac{3}{y}\right)^y\to e^{-3}>0$ as $y\to\infty$. Therefore $(\sin n)^n$ doesn't converge to zero and the series doesn't converge.