I have a question on this prior post on the derivation of the normal distribution.
The author had set up the target/dart analogy often used to introduce a translation-invariant bivariate, uncorrelated distribution $f(x,y) = g(x^2 + y^2),$ which ends up helping in the integration through the use of the Pythagoras theorem and change to polar coordinates.
At that point he mentions:
This means that $g$ must be an exponential function
$g(t) = A e^{-Bt}$
based on the independence of $X$ and $Y.$
This seemingly obvious step is not clear to me, and would like to ask why this is so clear - intuitively, yes, assuming a plausible competent dart thrower, the majority of darts will group around the center of the target, and there'll be an exponential drop-off away from the center (perhaps more or less rapid depending on the accuracy of the thrower).
But I don't see it mathematically.
\proptofor $\propto$ – Graham Kemp Mar 09 '18 at 03:00