That sounds a lot like a tongue-twister. I know that there exist sequences of Lipschitz functions whose uniform limit is not Lipschitz (for instance, just use Weierstrass theorem on $[a,b]$). Clearly if the sequence is uniformly Lipschitz, then the uniform limit has to be Lipschitz.
I think something similar should happen when we replace Lipschitz with uniform continuity. Weierstrass-Stone theorem though cannot be used as it requires a compact interval of definition which, in turn grants uniform continuity of continuous functions.
Is there an easy counterexample or is it actually true that
Given $\{f_n\}$ a sequence of uniform continuous functions, let $f$ be such that $$ f_n \to f $$ uniformly. Is then $f$ uniformly continuous itself?