I'm reading my lecturer's notes on how to derive the Simpson's Rule using Lagrange's Interpolating Polynomial, but there's a point that doesn't quite seem right.
Here's a screenshot of the notes pointing out where I'm confused:

My problem is, how is it true that:
$$ \int_{-h}^{h} {(x+h)x \over (2h)(h)} y_2 = {{y_2} \over 2h^2 } \left[ {x^3 \over 3} - {hx^2 \over 2} \right]_{-h}^{h} $$
Where did the $ \space - {hx^2 \over 2} \space $ come from?
Shouldn't it be:
$$ \int_{-h}^{h} {(x+h)x \over (2h)(h)} y_2 = {{y_2} \over 2h^2 } \left[ {x^3 \over 3} + {hx^2 \over 2} \right]_{-h}^{h} $$
And if that's the case, doesn't the whole proof break?
Sorry if this is easy and straightforward to some, I'm really lost here.