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I'm reading my lecturer's notes on how to derive the Simpson's Rule using Lagrange's Interpolating Polynomial, but there's a point that doesn't quite seem right.

Here's a screenshot of the notes pointing out where I'm confused: enter image description here

My problem is, how is it true that:

$$ \int_{-h}^{h} {(x+h)x \over (2h)(h)} y_2 = {{y_2} \over 2h^2 } \left[ {x^3 \over 3} - {hx^2 \over 2} \right]_{-h}^{h} $$

Where did the $ \space - {hx^2 \over 2} \space $ come from?

Shouldn't it be:

$$ \int_{-h}^{h} {(x+h)x \over (2h)(h)} y_2 = {{y_2} \over 2h^2 } \left[ {x^3 \over 3} + {hx^2 \over 2} \right]_{-h}^{h} $$

And if that's the case, doesn't the whole proof break?

Sorry if this is easy and straightforward to some, I'm really lost here.

Max Echendu
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1 Answers1

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You're exactly correct. The last term of the integral (in your first red box) is expressed correctly, but evaluated incorrectly (in your second red box).

John
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