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Here's the $C^1$ norm :

$|| f || = \sup | f | + \sup | f '|$

where the supremum is taken on $[a, b]$.

Please, justify your answer (proofs or counterexamples are needed).

Alex Pozo
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  • Not if "piecewise" means "finitely many pieces". – zhw. Oct 05 '17 at 20:49
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    Welcome to stackexchange. You will get better answers if you show what you have done so far on a problem and where you are stuck, rather than just asking for a proof. Do that by editing the question, not in comments. Learn how to format mathematics with mathjax (https://math.meta.stackexchange.com/questions/5020/mathjax-basic-tutorial-and-quick-reference). You also seem to have asked the same question twice. Please delete one of them. – Ethan Bolker Oct 07 '17 at 13:29
  • @Pambr: This forum has been used in the past by students to cheat on their homework and/or exams. This is one of the reasons why the accepted etiquette is now the one Ethan kindly pointed out. There are many discussions on this in the Meta section of the forum. – Giuseppe Negro Oct 07 '17 at 17:53

2 Answers2

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A counterexample may be:

$\forall x \in [0;\frac{1}{2}], f_{1}(x)=0$ and $\forall x \in [\frac{1}{2};1], f_{1}(x)=\frac{1}{2^{0}}$

$\forall x \in [0;\frac{2^{n}-1}{2^{n}}], f_{n}(x)=f_{n-1}(x)$ and $\forall x \in [\frac{2^{n}-1}{2^{n}};1], f_{n}(x)=\sum_{i=0}^{n-1}\frac{1}{2^{i}}$

Julien
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Choose any sequence $a_0=b > a_1 > a_ 2 > \dots \to a.$ Define $f$ on $(a,b]$ by letting $f$ be a tent of height $h_n$ over $[a_n,a_{n-1}], n=1,2,\dots.$ Do this so that the slopes of the tents $\to 0$ in absolute value (i.e., so that $h_n/(a_{n-1}-a_n) \to 0$). Set $f(a) = 0.$ Then $f\notin C^1_{pw}.$

Now define $f_n = \chi_{[a_n,a_0]}\cdot f, n=1,2,\dots $ Then $f_n \in C^1_{pw}$ for each $n.$ Note that $f_n \to f$ pointwise on $[a,b].$ If $m< n,$ then $f_n-f_m$ is just the set of tents that live on $[a_n,a_m],$ with $f_n-f_m= 0$ everywhere else. It follows that $(f_n)$ is Cauchy in the $C^1_{pw}$ norm.

Could $f_n$ converge to some $g$ in $C^1_{pw}?$ Suppose it does. Then $\sup_{[a,b]}|f_n - g| \to 0.$ Thus $g$ is the pointwise limit of the $f_n.$ But we saw earlier that $f$ is the pointwise limit of the $f_n.$ We conclude $f=g$ everywhere, which is a contradiction. Therefore $C^1_{pw}$ is not complete.

zhw.
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