This conjecture is obviously inspired by the abc-conjecture:
Let $\gcd(a,b)=1$ then $\operatorname{rad}((a+b)ab(ab+a+b))> ab+a+b$
I am not asking for a proof, just for possible counterexamples, if they exist. I checked this with the computer for some numbers, and didn't find any counterexample.
What I checked so far $(\gcd(a,b)=1)$:
- $1 \le a,b \le 1000$
- $a=1$, $1 \le b \le 10^6$
- $1 \le m \le 10^6$, $a=m,b=m+1$
Heuristic that this is true for infinetly many $b$: If $p\neq 2$ is a prime, then set $b = \frac{p-1}{2}, a = 1$. Then $\operatorname{rad}((a+b)ab(ab+a+b)) = \operatorname{rad}(\frac{p-1}{2}\frac{p+1}{2}p) > p = ab+a+b$
Another way to prove that there are infinitely many $(a,b)$ which fulfill the conjecture: Choose some $a \in \mathbb{N}$. Since $\gcd(a,a+1)=1$, by the (https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Dirichlet%27s_theorem_on_arithmetic_progressions) Dirichlet theorem on arithmetic progression there are infinitely many primes of the form $p = b(a+1)+a = ab + a +b$. Then necessarily $\gcd(a,b)=1$, otherwise if $g=\gcd(a,b)$ $a = g a_1$ and $b=g b_1$ then $g | p$ and hence $g=p$, which is impossible since $p = g ( a_1 b_1+a_1+b_1)$ and we must have $3 \le a_1b_1+a_1+b_1=1$, which can not work. Then $\operatorname{rad}((a+b)ab(ab+a+b)) = \operatorname{rad}((a+b)ab \cdot p) > p = ab + a +b$
Edit: If someone finds another way to produce infinitely many tuples $(a,b)$ which fulfill the conjecture, that would also be interesting.
Second Edit: Related question: https://mathoverflow.net/questions/343245/other-examples-of-irreducible-similarities-over-the-natural-numbers