Context: I'm working through Introduction to Algorithms (CLRS), in which one of the questions is:
Show that for any two functions $f(n)$ and $g(n)$ that are asymptotically nonnegative, either $f(n) = O(g(n))$ or $f(n) = \overset{\infty}{\Omega}(g(n))$ or both.
Now, what exactly $O(g(n))$ and $\overset{\infty}{\Omega}(g(n))$ mean doesn't matter; all the matters is that I am to prove a statement of the form $A \vee B$ (where $A$ is the statement $f(n) = O(g(n))$ and $B$ is the statement $f(n) = \overset{\infty}{\Omega}(g(n))$ ).
The problem is that $A$ and $B$ can't be proved by themselves (since whether or not they're true varies from function to function), so to prove $A \vee B$, I need to prove $\neg A \implies B$ (since $A \vee \neg A$ is true), but this shows only that $A$ is true or $B$ is true (or, in other words, $A$ and $B$ partition the set of all possible outcomes); it doesn't show that $A \wedge B$ is also possible.
How would I go about proving this $(A \wedge B)$ in general?
When I say "in general", I'm referring to situations like this, where you can't just prove that $A$ is true and that $B$ is true, and then say, "therefore $A \wedge B$ is true").
A xor Bis $(A\lor B) \land \lnot(A\land B)$. And yes, proving $A\lor B$, or equivalently $\lnot A \implies B$, is sufficient. But if you're determined to show that "both" can occur, just give an example ($f(n) = g(n) = n$ works fine). – Daniel Fischer Jul 10 '17 at 22:04