There's an issue with defining $(x!)'$, in that the factorial function $f(x) = x!$ isn't continuous, so can't be differentiable.
To fix this, we can define the Gamma function. For integers, we have that $\Gamma(x) = (x-1)!$, but by defining this as:
$$\Gamma(z) = \int_0^\infty x^{z-1}e^{-x}dx$$
You can verify that this gives the correct result for integers by repeatedly integrating by parts.
Now, we can ask, what's the derivative of $\Gamma(z)$? This is defined in terms of something called the polygamma function, which (unfortunately) is defined as:
$$\psi^{(n)}(z) = \frac{d^{m+1}}{dz^{m+1}}\ln(\Gamma(z))$$
Especially, we have that:
$$\psi^{(0)}(z) = \frac{\Gamma'(z)}{\Gamma(z)}$$
So, we have that:
$$\Gamma'(z) = \psi^{(0)}(z) \Gamma(z)$$
In terms of the definition I gave you, this is unenlightening. But, on integer arguments we can recover the following (by using an alternative expression for $\psi^{(0)}$, similar to the expression $x! = \Gamma(x+1)$ for $\Gamma$):
$$(n!)' = \Gamma'(n+1) = \underbrace{\left(-\gamma+\sum_{k = 1}^{n}\frac{1}{k}\right)}_{\psi^{(0)}(n+1)}(n+1)!$$
where $\gamma\approx 0.57721$ is the Euler-Mascheroni constant.
For further reading, the Gamma function and Polygamma function articles are fairly useful.
\Gammavs.\gamma). And in that case, have you tried differentiating that function instead of the factorial? – Arthur Jan 14 '17 at 07:44