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The question is described in the title. To clarify, I'm looking for an example where the domain of such a function is $\mathbb{R}$, so the example here will not work.

The highest upvote answer here gives an example of discontinuous open map from $\mathbb{R}$ to $\mathbb{R}$, but that map can hardly be closed (closed set does not need to contain any interval!). I have difficulty generalizing the construction and know very little about any sufficient condition that leads to a closed map without continuity (piecewise constant will work, but that kind of map cannot be open!).

I'll appreciate any example, non-constructive prove/disprove, or any reference that covers this.

*In case I need to clarify this, we use std. metric topology on $\mathbb{R}$.

2 Answers2

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No such function exists.

Assume that $f((a,b))$ is a bounded open set. Then $f((a,b))= (c,d)$ for some $c,d\in \mathbb{R}$. Indeed, $f((a,b))$ is an open set hence of the form $\bigcup (a_n,b_n)$ however $f([a,b])$ has at most two more points than $f((a,b))$, so we conclude.

Claim: if $f((a,b))= (c,d)$ then $f$ is continuous and strictly monotonic on $(a,b)$.

Proof: Firstly, we will show that $f$ is injective. Indeed assume that $f(x_1)= f(x_2)$ for some $x_1,x_2\in (a,b)$. Then take the $f((x_1,x_2))=(c_1,d_1) $ for some $c_1,d_1$, a contradiction since $f( [x_1,x_2] )$ needs two points to be closed. Now, since $f$ has the IVT propoerty and it is injective it is strictly monotonic and continuous.

We will argue by contradiction. Assume that $f$ is not continuous at $x_0$, and set $V_n=( x_0-1/n,x_0+1/n )$. Now, the claim implies there are $z_n<w_n$ such that $f(V_n )=(-\infty ,z_n)\bigcup (w_n,\infty) $ where $z_n$ or $w_n$ can possibly take the value $\pm \infty$. Also, notice that $w_n$ is increasing and $z_n$ is decreasing.

First case, one of the $z_n,w_n$ converges (to a finite limit). WLOG assume that $w_n \rightarrow w$. Now, pick a number $\beta$ in $(w,\infty)$ that is different from $f(x_0)$. We can find a sequence $p_n\in V_{n-1}\setminus V_n$ such that $f(p_n)=\beta +1/n$. A contradiction since the closed set $\{x_0\}\bigcup \{p_n|n\in \mathbb{N}\}$ gets mapped via $f$ to $\{f(x_0)\}\bigcup \{\beta +1/n|n\in \mathbb{N}\}$ which is not closed.

In the second case, we have $z_n \rightarrow -\infty$ and $w_n \rightarrow\infty$. This is a contradiction since the previous implies $\bigcap_{n \in \mathbb{N}}f(V_n)= \emptyset$, however $\bigcap_{n \in \mathbb{N}}f(V_n)$ always contains $f(x_0)$.

clark
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  • Very well written and smart, +1 – Fimpellizzeri Dec 15 '16 at 18:08
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    I don't really see what you're arguing there, but it seems you don't handle the possibility that $f((a,b)) = \mathbb{R}$ for all $a < b$. – Daniel Fischer Dec 15 '16 at 20:38
  • @DanielFischer Thanks for your comment. My point is to show that $f$ is continuous at every point. If $x_0$ is contained in an interval $(a,b)$ such that $f( (a,b))$ is bounded then we are done by the claim. So if $f$ is discontinuous at $x_0$ $f(V_n)$ must be unbounded for every $n$(and I would like from here to reach a contradiction). You are right I have mentioned what happens if $f(V_n)=\mathbb{R},\forall n$, however the argument in the second to last paragraph works and can be used word for word (we just change pick $\beta \in (\infty,\infty)$) if you forget the first two sentences. – clark Dec 15 '16 at 22:28
  • @DanielFischer I had in my mind that that case is exactly identical that is why I forgot to include it, I am sorry for the confusion. – clark Dec 15 '16 at 22:29
  • I think I almost get it. I'll pay the bounty after I double check the answer and the comment one more time. –  Dec 16 '16 at 01:23
  • @frank000 if you need me to elaborate on anything please feel free to do so. – clark Dec 16 '16 at 04:02
  • In the proof of your claim, after proving injectivity, you could just look at $f^{-1},$ which is continuous because $f$ is open. So $f^{-1}:(c,d) \to (a,b)$ is continuous and injective, therefore its inverse, which is $f,$ has the same propery. – zhw. Dec 17 '16 at 20:19
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    Let me notice a simple fact here. As Frank noted in his post, there are examples of open maps $f:\mathbb{R} \rightarrow \mathbb{R}$ which are not continuous. But there are also examples of closed maps $f:\mathbb{R} \rightarrow \mathbb{R}$ which are not continuous, e.g. Heaviside step function. The remarkable result proved by clark is that by assuming that $f:\mathbb{R} \rightarrow \mathbb{R}$ is both open and closed, we can conclude that $f$ is continuous. – Maurizio Barbato Feb 01 '17 at 16:10
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This proof has a flaw in the second half:

Let $f:\mathbb R\rightarrow \mathbb R$ be a closed and open function.

First we prove that $f^{-1}(x)$ is finite for every $x\in \mathbb R$

suppose not, let $a_1>a_2>a_n\dots$ be a sequence of values whose image is all $x$, and such that for every $i$ there is an element in $f^{-1}(x)$ between $a_i$ and $a_{i+1}$.

Notice that $f((a_i,a_{i+1}))=f([a_i,a_{i+1}])$. Therefore $f((a_i,a_{i+1})=\mathbb R$, since it is a clopen set).

If the $a_i$'s converge then let $l$ be their limit.

We now take $b_1,b_2,\dots$ a sequence such that $a_i<b_i<a_{i+1}$ for all $i$, and such that $f(b_i)$ is a strictly increasing converging sequence ( if the $a_i$'s converge we also ask $f(a_i)>l$).

If $l$ does not exist then $\{b_1,b_2,\dots\}$ is closed while its image is not. And if $l$ exists then $\{l,b_1,b_2,\dots\}$ is closed while its image is not.


So now let $f^{-1}(0)=\{a_1,a_2,\dots, a_n\}$. Then $f$ is injective when restricted to $(-\infty,a_1),(a_i,a_{i+1})$ and $(a_n,\infty)$.

Proof: Let $U$ be a connected set which does not contain $0$ in the image, suppose $f(x)=f(y)$ for some $x\in U$. Notice that $f((x,y))$ and $f([x,y])$ differ by exactly one point. This means that $f(x,y)$ is an open set with at most $1$ limit point. Therefore $f(x,y)=\mathbb R$ or $\mathbb R \setminus f(x)$. Either case is a contradiction, since no point in $U$ maps to $0$.

We conclude that $f$ is injective when restricted to each of those open sets. Notice that the function $f$ is an open function with respect to the induced topology, since each of those sets is open. Moreover, each of these sets is isomorphic to $\mathbb R$. The following lemma finishes the proof.

Lemma: an open injection $g:\mathbb R\rightarrow \mathbb R$ is continuous.

proof: Let $h$ be the $g$ with a changed codomain, so that the function is surjective. Notice that $h^{-1}$ is a continuous bijection from a disjoint union of open sets to $\mathbb R$. (every open set is a disjoint union of open intervals).

It suffices to show that $h^{-1}$ is open on every interval, but this is clear, since a continuous injection $(a,b)\rightarrow \mathbb R$ is increasing, and hence a homeomorphism on its domain.

This shows that $f$ is continuous for every point $x$ with $f(x)\neq 0$. Using the same argument for $1$ instead of $0$ proves continuity everywhere.

Asinomás
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  • because $f(a_i)=f(a_{i+1})=x$, additionally there is a value in $(a_i,a_{i+1})$ that also maps to $x$. It is one of the prerequisites for the construction of the sequence $a_1,a_2,\dots$. – Asinomás Dec 13 '16 at 00:59
  • In the proof of injectivity, I suppose it could be that $f\big((x,y)\big)=(-\infty,c)$ for some $c<0$, or $(c,+\infty)$ for some $c>0$? Here, of course, $c=f(x)=f(y)$. – Fimpellizzeri Dec 13 '16 at 01:06
  • oh yeah, you're right, we would have to fix that :( – Asinomás Dec 13 '16 at 01:09
  • we just need to prove that the function is locally injective. – Asinomás Dec 13 '16 at 01:13
  • What we do know using a clopen argument is that $f\big((a_i,a_{i+2})\big)=f([a_i,a_{i+2}])=\mathbb{R}$. – Fimpellizzeri Dec 13 '16 at 02:57
  • If the proof is not fixed yet, I think it would be best to make an edit to indicate that. – clark Dec 13 '16 at 06:13
  • In the first part there need not exist a strictly decreasing sequence $\langle a_n:n\in\Bbb Z^+\rangle$ in an infinite fibre of $f$; nor need there be a strictly increasing one, which, given the way you’ve written the intervals, is probably what you intended. The error is fixable, since there must be either a strictly decreasing or a strictly increasing sequence in an infinite fibre of $f$, and essentially the same argument works for both. – Brian M. Scott Dec 13 '16 at 06:36
  • @BrianM.Scott what do you mean? is it true that I can't always find an increasing sequence inside an infinite subset of reals? – Asinomás Dec 13 '16 at 06:41
  • @Jorge: Yes, that is true. Consider the set of negative integers. – Brian M. Scott Dec 13 '16 at 06:42
  • oh wow, you're so right, I can't believe I never realized that before. But then a sequence in at least one direction exists? – Asinomás Dec 13 '16 at 06:43
  • @Jorge: Yes; it’s a nice little exercise to prove this. – Brian M. Scott Dec 13 '16 at 06:44
  • Oh yeah, I can take an arbitrary $x$ inside the set, and then there must be an infinite number of values smaller than $x$ or an infinite number of values greater than $x$. We can then define the sequence inductively in that direction. – Asinomás Dec 13 '16 at 06:45
  • oh wait, I can't actually start wherever I want :( – Asinomás Dec 13 '16 at 06:46
  • @Jorge: It’s a little harder than that. I have to run now, but I’ll check back sometime tomorrow. – Brian M. Scott Dec 13 '16 at 06:46
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    @BrianM.Scott Oh I know, every infinite set has a countable subset. So now I can just use the theorem that every sequence has a non-increasing subsequence or a non-decreasing subsequence. (The sequence that I use is whichever function I use to show the subset is countable, since this function is injective the sequence is actually increasing or decreasing). – Asinomás Dec 13 '16 at 06:50
  • The finiteness of the fibre is guaranteed by your argument, it's just that we may not assume that there is a strictly increasing $a_n$, but there certainly is a strictly monotone $a_n$. – Fimpellizzeri Dec 13 '16 at 06:52
  • yeah, the finiteness part seems to be good, in fact I'm pretty sure that I can show that the size of the fibers is bounded. – Asinomás Dec 13 '16 at 07:03