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Suppose that we have the following integral \begin{equation} \int_{-b}^{\infty}(t+b)^{\nu}e^{-t}e^{-e^{-t}}dt, \end{equation} where $b$ is a positive constant and $\nu$ is any number (real or complex). How can we get an approximated result? I'm doubting that the form $b^{c_1\nu+c_2\nu^2}$ can approximate it very well.

  • I suppose the integral goes as $b^{\nu}$ if $b$ gets big. Furthemore i'm almost certain the corrections will be of order $ b^{-1}$ – tired Nov 14 '16 at 15:48
  • Thank you very much for your comment. I think the asymptotic $b^{\nu}$ only applies when $\nu$ is not very large. You can try to sweep $\nu\in[-j20,j20]$, where $j=\sqrt{-1}$. – kawofengche Nov 14 '16 at 17:13
  • you mean another question i asked? http://math.stackexchange.com/questions/2010717/how-to-approximate-the-integral-int-b-infty-logtbe-te-e-tdt – kawofengche Nov 14 '16 at 17:33
  • yes, I just saw it! it is correct! – kawofengche Nov 14 '16 at 17:36

1 Answers1

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Not easy.

Since you want an approximation, we can do as follows.

The first thing to analyze is the trivial case in which $b = 0$. This will help us later. In this case you have

$$\int_0^{+\infty} t^{\nu} e^{-t} e^{-e^{-t}} \ \text{d}t$$

Since the range of integration is $\mathbb{R}^+$ you are allowed to use Taylor Series for $e^{-e^{-t}}$, and we get:

$$\sum_{k = 0}^{+\infty}\frac{(-1)^k}{k!} \int_0^{+\infty} t^{\nu} e^{-t} e^{-kt}\ \text{d}t = \sum_{k = 0}^{+\infty}\frac{(-1)^k}{k!} \int_0^{+\infty} t^{\nu} e^{-t(1+k)}\ \text{d}t$$

This is a standard integration which gives you

$$\int_0^{+\infty} t^{\nu} e^{-t(1+k)}\ \text{d}t = (1+k)^{-1-\nu}\ \Gamma(1+\nu)$$

Where $\Gamma(a)$ represent the well known Gamma Function.

Hence

$$ \sum_{k = 0}^{+\infty}\frac{(-1)^k}{k!} (1+k)^{-1-\nu}\ \Gamma(1+\nu) = \Gamma(1-\nu) \sum_{k = 0}^{+\infty}\frac{(-1)^k}{(k+1)!} (1+k)^{-\nu}$$

Unfortunately, there is no sufficient data to be able to tell if the series does converge and where, because we know nothing about $\nu$. If it's real, complex, imaginary, greater than $2$, between $0$ and $1$ and so on.

I can plot you this series, for $k$ from $0$ to $100$, and $\nu$ from $-8$ to $+8$, to show you the partial behavior, if it helps:

enter image description here

Now we come to a more general case, if it is possible.

When $b\neq 0$ we have your integral.

$$\int_{-b}^{+\infty} (t+b)^{\nu} e^{-t} e^{-e^{-t}}\ \text{d}t$$

General Integral

For this integral, which is a beast, it's conveniente to split it into two parts.

The first one:

$$\int_0^{+\infty} (t+b)^{\nu} e^{-t} e^{-e^{-t}}\ \text{d}t$$

"can be evaluated" by a giant use of Taylor series for both $e^{-t}$ and $e^{-e^{-t}}$. And it's not over. So, using the series we get (easy to verify):

$$\sum_{k =0}^{+\infty} \sum_{j = 0}^{+\infty} \frac{(-1)^k (-1)^j}{k!\ j!} \int_0^{+\infty} (t+b)^{\nu} t^k\ e^{-tj}\ \text{d}t$$

Again we use Taylor series for the last term $e^{-tj}$, getting

$$\sum_{k =0}^{+\infty} \sum_{j = 0}^{+\infty} \sum_{n = 0}^{+\infty} \frac{(-1)^k (-1)^j (-1)^n}{k!\ j!\ n!} j^n\int_0^{+\infty} (t+b)^{\nu} t^k\ t^n\ \text{d}t$$

The integral now is

$$\int_0^{+\infty} (t+b)^{\nu} t^{k+n}\ \text{d}t = b^{1 + \nu + n + k} \frac{\Gamma(-1-\nu - j - n)\Gamma(1 + j + n)}{\Gamma(-\nu)}$$

And so you start seeing how difficult is to get an approximate form, since this result only holds for $\Re(\nu + j + n) >-1$. But it's something, right?

So this part will give you in the end

$$\sum_{k =0}^{+\infty} \sum_{j = 0}^{+\infty} \sum_{n = 0}^{+\infty} \frac{(-1)^k (-1)^j (-1)^n}{k!\ j!\ n!} j^n b^{1 + \nu + n + k} \frac{\Gamma(-1-\nu - j - n)\Gamma(1 + j + n)}{\Gamma(-\nu)}$$

Good luck in summing that. Even if you may try with the first $3-4$ terms each series, that would be simple, actually. I cannot say anything about the convergence of those series, though. The parameter $\nu$ is too general.

For what concerns the second integral, we have

$$\int_{-b}^0 (t+b)^{\nu} e^{-t} e^{-e^{-t}}\ \text{d}t$$

What we can do here are two passages: the first is to use the Binomial theorem for $(t+b)^{\nu}$ term, and the second is again a Taylor series for the second exponential, allowed because

$$e^{-e^{-t}}$$

has two parts: the "higher" $e^{-t}$, which becomes great for $t < 0$, and the second part $e^{-e^{-t}}$ which becomes very small for $e^{-t}$ large.

Hence

$$(t+b)^{\nu} = \sum_{m = 0}^{+\nu} \binom{\nu}{m} b^{\nu - m} t^m$$

$$e^{-e^{-t}} = \sum_{p = 0}^{+\infty} \frac{(-1)^p}{p!} e^{-pt}$$

Putting all together you get

$$ \sum_{m = 0}^{+\nu} \binom{\nu}{m} b^{\nu - m} \sum_{p = 0}^{+\infty} \frac{(-1)^p}{p!} \int_{-b}^0 t^m e^{-t} e^{-tp}\ \text{d}t$$

The very last integral is trivial

$$ \int_{-b}^0 t^m e^{-t} e^{-tp}\ \text{d}t = \frac{(-1)^m }{(-p-1)^{m+1}} (\Gamma (m+1)-\Gamma (m+1,-b (p+1)))$$

Where the last function is the Incomplete Gamma Function. You can manipulate a bit the minus signs, and in the end with the previous sums you have:

$$ \sum_{m = 0}^{+\nu} \binom{\nu}{m} b^{\nu - m} \sum_{p = 0}^{+\infty} \frac{(-1)^{p+1}}{(p+1)!} (\Gamma (m+1)-\Gamma (m+1,-b (p+1)))$$

The final Union

Summing this part to the previous and we get the (actually not so approximate, but rather quite exact for the conditions we established about the parameters) solution:


$$\sum_{k =0}^{+\infty} \sum_{j = 0}^{+\infty} \sum_{n = 0}^{+\infty} \frac{(-1)^k (-1)^j (-1)^n}{k!\ j!\ n!} j^n b^{1 + \nu + n + k} \frac{\Gamma(-1-\nu - j - n)\Gamma(1 + j + n)}{\Gamma(-\nu)} + \\\\ +\sum_{m = 0}^{+\nu} \binom{\nu}{m} b^{\nu - m} \sum_{p = 0}^{+\infty} \frac{(-1)^{p+1}}{(p+1)!} (\Gamma (m+1)-\Gamma (m+1,-b (p+1)))$$

  • I did not go through your steps but I admire your patience with this monstreous problem ! – Claude Leibovici Nov 14 '16 at 11:40
  • @ClaudeLeibovici Thanks again Mr! I just had some fun XD –  Nov 14 '16 at 12:14
  • @AlanTuring, First of all, thank you very much!! It is really impressive. Actually I had exact the same idea to decouple the integral into two intervals. The first interval, $[0, \infty]$, is not so complex to derive. But for the second interval, $[-b,0]$, I initially also use Taylor series to expand the double exponential. However, due to the negative value of $t$, this expansion has very poor performance (even diverge!) especially when $b$ is large. You can use the following MATLAB code to have a look:t = -5; n = 0:15; res1 =exp(-exp(-t));res2=sum((-1).^n./factorial(n).exp(-nt)); – kawofengche Nov 14 '16 at 12:31
  • @kawofengche Using Taylor for BOTH the exponential in the second case is wrong, because for $t <0$, $e^{-t}$ becomes very large.

    But the other exponential, $e^{-e^{-t}}$ becomes instead very small, because $e^{-t}$ is large, and so $e^{-A}$ is small ($A = e^{-t}$). So this was my idea for the second, one, only one expansion + the Binomial Theorem! Thanks for the Matlab code!

    –  Nov 14 '16 at 12:33
  • @AlanTuring, Let me read your answer in more detail. – kawofengche Nov 14 '16 at 12:37
  • @kawofengche Sure! Take your time, and in case feel free to ask! That was not an easy integral, at all! But you gave me amusing moments so thank you a priori! Even if the solution is a mess.. But the integral is too :D –  Nov 14 '16 at 12:40
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    @AlanTuring, It's really interesting to discuss this problem with you. In my last comment, I mean that the Taylor expansion $e^{-e^{-t}}=\sum_{n=0}^{\infty}\frac{(-1)^n}{n!}e^{-nt}$ does not work very well especially when $t$ is a very small negative number, for example, $t=-5$. Actually, approximating a very small number, e.g., $e^{-e^{5}}=3.5\times10^{-65}$ requires a very large number of terms, this may be even not very practical. – kawofengche Nov 14 '16 at 13:59
  • @kawofengche You're right about this. Notice that, in any case, the series I wrote are all infinite (except the binomial one, but this is because of its definition). I wonder if one can numerically compute the final result, in order to see some comparison... By the way, may I ask you where does this integral come from? It's very amusing and interesting, especially the exp(exp) part :D –  Nov 14 '16 at 14:05
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    You can find this from some double exponential distributions, for example referring to this https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Gumbel_distribution – kawofengche Nov 14 '16 at 14:16
  • @kawofengche Cool!! I just learnt a new topic :D Thanks! –  Nov 14 '16 at 15:03
  • @AlanTuring, You are welcome:) Enjoying it! – kawofengche Nov 14 '16 at 15:08
  • where is the approximation? i only see complicated triple sums and tons of Gamma functions ??? – tired Nov 14 '16 at 15:50
  • @tired First of all, Taylor series IS an approximation of a function. Second of all, you always have to comment without any usefulness. Why don't you stop being "tired" and you start moving your hands, and write something? :)

    P.s. Is the last sentence of yours a question? Do you see Gamma Functions? Do you see triple sums? Yes you do.

    –  Nov 14 '16 at 16:06
  • i just doubt the usefulness of your approach if one wants to calculate the integral in real world applications, that's all. It might work for some verys restriceted set of parameters (as usual for taylor series) but will fail for many many others. Besides that, i will overlook your impudence ...get a life! – tired Nov 14 '16 at 16:11
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    kawofengche it looks like you did virtually nothing, and then, after Alan Turing provided you with a very detailed and thorough answer (No doubt he spent far more time on answering your question, than you put into it. And then, you nit-pick that answer? Thee who hath not worked ought not judge others who doeth thy work. – amWhy Nov 15 '16 at 00:25
  • @amWhy: please read the comments carefully, I admire the contribution from AlanTuring. – kawofengche Nov 15 '16 at 08:55