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Find the roots of this equation

$e^x + e^{1/x} + a = 0$

where $a \in \Bbb R$

Is there any nice formula for this type of equation?

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    Numerical Methods do not help, I need a formula or a taylor series if it is possible. thanks @Moo for your fast respond. – Pentapolis Jul 04 '16 at 02:08
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    If $a\in \mathbb R+$, then no real root. – Nitin Uniyal Jul 04 '16 at 02:15
  • For $a=-b$, with $b$ largish, there should be useful approximations for the roots, since (for the one in $(1,\infty)$, we are close to $e^x+1=b$. – André Nicolas Jul 04 '16 at 02:25
  • Would asymptotic series work for you, e.g., take an asymptotic expansion when $a$ is small (in absolute value) and one when it is large and then match them? By the way, it has real roots for $a<-5.437$ (trial and error) and it has two roots one of which goes towards zero and the other one increases as $-a$ increases. – Pantelis Sopasakis Jul 04 '16 at 02:28
  • Here is a graph https://www.desmos.com/calculator/zwzm1ms35p – John Wayland Bales Jul 04 '16 at 02:37
  • Hint: consider large negative $a$, then one root should be close to $\ln(-a)$ (i.e. the solution to $e^x+a=0$ while the other should be close to $1/\ln(-a)$ (i.e. the solution to $e^{1/x}+a=0$). You should be able to show using some sort of monotonicity argument that there cannot be any other roots. You can then try writing $x$ equal to that root plus a correction and do asymptotics on the correction. For example, you can look at $x=\ln(-a)+\epsilon$ so you have $-a e^\epsilon+e^{1/(\ln(-a)+\epsilon)}+a=0$. Now for large negative $a$ and small $\epsilon$ you can proceed by series expansion. – Ian Jul 04 '16 at 03:36
  • You have $1/(\ln(-a)+\epsilon)=\frac{1}{\ln(-a)} \frac{1}{1+\epsilon/\ln(-a)}=\frac{1}{\ln(-a)}(1-\epsilon/ln(-a)+o(\epsilon))$ so the second term is $e^{1/\ln(-a)}e^{-\epsilon/\ln(-a)}e^{o(\epsilon)}$ and the first term, after cancelling its leading term with $+a$, is $-a \epsilon+o(\epsilon)$. So the whole equation, to first order, is $-a\epsilon + e^{1/\ln(-a)}(1-\epsilon/\ln(-a))=0$, which is a linear equation in $\epsilon$ that you can solve for a first order solution. Higher order solutions will quickly get cumbersome. – Ian Jul 04 '16 at 03:42
  • I am afraid that there is no hope for analytical solutions. – Claude Leibovici Jul 04 '16 at 03:47
  • Another idea: for large enough negative $a$, $x=\ln(-a-e^{1/x})=\ln(-a)+\ln(1+e^{1/x}/a) \approx \ln(-a)+e^{1/x}/a \approx \ln(-a)+1/a+1/(ax)$. So $x^2+(-\ln(-a)-1/a)x+(-1/a) \approx 0$, which gives $x \approx \frac{\ln(-a)+1/a+\sqrt{(\ln(-a)+1/a)^2+4/a}}{2}$. The other root is exactly the reciprocal of this root, so it is approximately the reciprocal of this approximation. That can be further approximated as $\ln(-a)+1/a+\frac{1}{a \ln(-a)+1}$. – Ian Jul 04 '16 at 04:05
  • This last approximation is pretty good: for example, when $a=-100$, it gives about 4.5930, a numerical solution is about 4.5927. It's not atrocious when $a$ is much smaller, for example when $a=-6$, the approximation gives 1.5225 while a numerical solution is 1.3664. The more complicated approximation involving the square root is slightly better. – Ian Jul 04 '16 at 04:50

2 Answers2

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An actual analytical solution will not happen here. An analytical approximation can be given as follows.

For large enough negative $a$, there are two roots, each reciprocals of each other. One is large and positive, the other is small and positive. The large and positive one can be approximated:

$$x=\ln(-a-e^{1/x})=\ln(-a)+\ln(1+e^{1/x}/a) \approx \ln(-a)+e^{1/x}/a \approx \ln(-a)+1/a+1/(ax).$$

In the first step we Taylor expanded the logarithm, committing an error on the order of $(e^{1/x}/a)^2$. In the second step we Taylor expanded the exponential, committing an error on the order of $(1/x)^2/a$.

Running with this, we get a quadratic equation, and the solution which is consistent with the approximations we just made is

$$\frac{\ln(-a)+1/a+\sqrt{(\ln(-a)+1/a)^2+4/a}}{2}.$$

The square root can be linearly approximated to give

$$\ln(-a)+1/a+\frac{1}{a\ln(-a)+1}.$$

This is a pretty good approximation, judging by numerical evidence. Heuristically it should be a pretty good approximation, because above we made errors on the order of at most $1/(a \ln(-a)^2)$ on the right side, then we multiplied both sides by $x$ which is on the order of $\ln(-a)$. So the overall error in the solution to the quadratic should be on the order of $1/(a \ln(-a))$. The error in the last step turns out to be smaller than the others, so the overall error in the final approximation should be on the order of $1/(a \ln(-a))$. (In particular, the last term is not really "significant", according to these error estimates; in terms of order of errors, we would've been just as good without including the $1/(ax)$ term. Still, that term actually does reduce the error a little bit in numerical tests.)

Higher order approximations will become quite cumbersome, if we proceed by this approach. But still, it seems that you can readily achieve convergence of numerical methods by beginning with this asymptotic as your initial guess.

Ian
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This equation, with $x=e^{it}$ is equivalent to solving: $$\operatorname{Re}\big(e^{e^{i t}}\big)=e^{\cos(t)}\cos(\sin(t))=\frac a2$$ Contrary to other users, there is an analytic solution for both positive branches via Lagrange reversion solutions being $(x,a^{\pm 1})$. Finding $x=\sum\limits_{n=1}^\infty a_n$ requires finding $\frac{d^{n-1}}{dw^{n-1}}\frac1we^\frac n{\ln(w)}$, so instead: $$e^x+\sqrt[x]e=a\iff e^{\pm x}=a+\sum_{n=1}^\infty\frac{(-1)^n}{n!}\left.\frac{d^{n-1}}{dw^{n-1}}e^\frac n{\ln(w)}\right|_a$$ A Maclaurin series and Stirling S1 $\frac{d^n}{dx^n}\ln^a(x)$ formula give: $$\frac{d^{n-1}}{dw^{n-1}}e^\frac n{\ln(w)}=\sum_{m=0}^\infty\frac{n^m}{m!}\frac{d^{n-1}}{dw^{n-1}}\ln^{-m}(w)=\sum_{m=0}^\infty\sum_{k=0}^{n-1}\frac{(-1)^kn^mS_{n-1}^{(k)}\Gamma(k+m)}{\ln^{m+k}(w)w^{n-1}\Gamma(m)m!}$$ The $m$ sum is the confluent hypergeometric function. Therefore: $$\bbox[4px,border: 4.5px groove #87CEFA ]{e^x+\sqrt[x]e=a\implies x^{\pm1}=\ln\left(a-1+\sum_{n=1}^\infty\sum_{k=0}^{n-1}\frac{S_{n-1}^{(k)}(-1)^{k+n}k!}{\ln^{k+1}(a)a^{n-1}\Gamma(n)} \,_1\text F_1\left(k+1;2;\frac n{\ln(a)}\right)\right)}$$ Shown here.


To find integral representations, one can use $_1\text F_1$’s functional identity, convert it into a Laguerre polynomial, switch the series with $\operatorname L_{n-1}^1(w)$’s integral representation, and finally Stirling S1’s generating function, but the solution would be a logarithm of an integral. Instead, one can find a direct integral representation after expanding: $$e^x+e^\frac1x=a\implies x^{\pm1}=\ln(a)+\sum_{n=1}^\infty\frac{(-1)^n}{n!}\frac{d^{n-1}}{da^{n-1}}\ln’(a)e^{-\frac1{\ln(a)}}$$ Evaluating the derivatives like in the first part of the post gives a triple sum, but applying the above integral representation steps and integration by parts with limits at integrand discontinuities, like here, gives: $$\begin{align}\bbox[4px,border: 4.5px groove #87CEFA ]{ e^x+e^\frac1x=a\implies x^{\pm1}=\ln\left(a-e^\frac1{\ln(a)}\right)+\frac1{2\pi}\int_0^{2\pi}\frac{e^{it}}{ae^{-\frac{e^{it}+1}{\ln(a)}}-1}\log_a\left((e^{-i t}+1)\log_a\left(1-\frac1a e^\frac{e^{it}+1}{\ln(a)}\right)+1\right)dt\\=\ln\left(\left(a-e^\frac1{\ln(a)}\right)\left(2\log_a\left(1-\frac1ae^\frac1{\ln(a)}\right)+1\right)\right)+\int_0^{2\pi}\frac{\log_a\left(e^\frac{e^{it}+1}{\ln(a)}-a\right)\left((e^{it}+1) e^{\frac{e^{it}+1}{\ln(a)}+it}-\ln(a)\left(e^\frac{e^{it}+1}{\ln(a)}-a\right)\ln\left(1-\frac1a e^\frac{e^{it}+1}{\ln(a)}\right)\right)}{\left(e^\frac{e^{it}+1}{\ln(a)}-a\right)\left((e^{it}+1)\ln\left(1-\frac1a e^\frac{e^{it}+1}{\ln(a)}\right)+e^{it}\ln(a)\right)}dt}\end{align}$$

shown here: enter image description here

Тyma Gaidash
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