So i read over the solution presented by Andre Nicolas:
Finding mode in Binomial distribution
But i have a few questions about the whole thing:
1) why did he set the ratio as $\frac{a_{k+1}}{a_k}$? Is each possible probability value a part of a sequence?
2) what is special about setting our ratios $\geq$ and $\leq$ 1?
3) Is there something special about being an integer? Does it have to do with being a discrete distribution?
4) what is the meaning of $k = np+p-1$ vs the other scenarios where it is not equal to k?
Sorry about the flurry of questions, but what appears as me understanding what is fully going on is not the case and there are some subtle points i am missing