"All" the examples of heat kernels in circulation are only dependent on the distance between the space variables rather than on the space variables themselves, i.e. $$K(t;x,y) = K(t;d(x,y)).$$
Think to the heat kernel on the Euclidean $d$-dimensional space, on the $d$-dimensional hyperbolic space, or even to the heat kernel associated to the laplacian acting on modular forms of integer weight on the upper half plane.
While wondering why this was true I stumbled across this article, where, at the top of page $2$, the author observes that this happens because of the homogeneousness of the space. This seems to be a very reasonable statement, but how to prove it?
We claim that if $X$ is a homogeneous Riemannian manifold, i.e. if the group of isometries $\mathrm{Isom}(X)$ of $X$ acts transitively on the set of points of $X$, then, for $x,y,x',y'\in X$ s.t. $d(x,y) = d(x',y')$ we have $$K_X(t;x,y) = K_X(t;x',y').$$
Since the heat kernel is isometry invariant, it would be enough to produce a $\varphi\in\mathrm{Isom}(X)$ such that $\varphi(x) = x'$ and $\varphi(y) = y'$ to get the statement. But this seems to me a stronger requirement than what the transitiveness of $\mathrm{Isom}(X)$ ensures, specifically this is the $2$-transitivity. What am I missing?
Moreover I would be grateful if somebody could point to me an example of a manifold which is known not to have a heat kernel purely dependent on the distance.
Thanks!