This question comes from a more physics perspective, particularly thermodynamics and includes the usage of differential forms.
We assume the existence of smooth functions with continuous derivatives up to the second order, for which the associated differential forms are exact.
$$\{ f \in C^2(\mathbb{R}^n) \mid d(df) = 0 \}$$
So I was looking at a fast way of deriving the Maxwell relations from the Fundamental relation with using as least physics possible and depending on just the fundamental rules of differential forms.
We start by the Fundamental relation: $$dU=TdS-pdV$$
and use the exterior derivative operator so
$$d(dU) = dT \wedge dS - dp \wedge dV$$
since one of the fundamental properties of the exterior derivative is that
$$d(df) = 0$$
we obtain:
$$dT \wedge dS=dp\wedge dV \tag{1}.$$
Now we can "divide" by $dp$ and $dS$ to get:
$$\frac {\partial T}{\partial p}= \frac {\partial V}{\partial S}$$
and also since differential forms don't commute we get
$$dT \wedge dS = -dV \wedge dp$$
and now if we "divide" by $dV$ and $dS$ we get
$$\frac {\partial T}{\partial V}= -\frac {\partial p}{\partial S}.$$
These are the two Maxwell relations I wanted to obtain.
My question is why can't we derive:
$$\frac {\partial T}{\partial V}= \frac {\partial p}{\partial S}$$
from the equation $(1)$?
I know that it is wrong, because immidiately we get a contradiction, i.e.:
$$\frac {\partial p}{\partial S}=-\frac {\partial p}{\partial S}$$
(also it doesn't make physical sense) but what is the rule when manipulating differential 2-forms in the situation like this
$$dx \wedge dy=dz \wedge dw$$ when wanting to obtain partial derivatives relations I showed above?
It seems, that we have to "divide" the most left differential form on the LHS with the most left one on the RHS and the most right on the RHS with the most right one on the LHS and all other combinations are not allowed, but that is not rigorous.
I recognize that using the term ‘divide’ in the context of differential forms is not mathematically rigorous, as it implies an operation that isn’t defined for wedge products. I understand that the asymmetry in the partial derivatives has to be a consequence of the antisymmetry property of differential forms, but I am unable to see the rule behind this.
Could someone provide a more formal rule for handling equations involving wedge products of differential forms to avoid the non-rigorous explanation I’ve used above?
