3

This is not a question about raising and lowering indices as suggested.


This is proof that I still don't understand the topic well, but here it goes: Pavel Grinfeld in his youtube videos uses $\bf Z_i$ for the covariant basis vectors (or on the blackboard $\vec Z_i$), which he describes as the derivative of the position vector (assumes Euclidean straight lines) along coordinate systems. So he also uses notation such as $\Gamma^k_{ij}\bf Z^k=\frac{\partial\bf Z_i}{\partial Z^i}$ to note the partial derivative of the covariant basis with respect to each of the coordinates, and introduce the Christoffel symbols.

I am sure this is perfect, and to his credit, he does mention "a lot of Z's here" at some point. But I would like to know what he has in mind to use these "Z" all over, and how to reconcile this with what I see elsewhere on this topic, i.e. $\bf e_i, e^i$ or $\partial_i,\rm dx^i.$

I see that the $\bf e$'s may be too close to the Cartesian system for his "coordinate-free" thinking, perhaps, but I have no clue if this is the motivation. Likewise, perhaps the $\partial$ and differential $\rm d$ are to physics-centered, but again, no clue if this is the motivation.

So what are the different notations for different occasions or disciplines to denote covariant and contravariant basis vectors in tensor algebra and calculus?

NB: I am not asking about the orthogonality of vectors and covectors (and the upper/lower index position). I am asking about where and why a letter (Z or e) is expected, and where and why, in other spots, the calculus notation is used.

3 Answers3

5

In typical differential/Riemannian geometry books, we start with a smooth manifold $M$ and typically introduce the following objects:

  1. a coordinate chart $(U,x=(x^1,\dots, x^n))$, i.e each $x^i:U\to\Bbb{R}$ is a smooth function.
  2. This coordinate chart induces a basis of vector fields on $U$, denoted $\left\{\frac{\partial}{\partial x^i}\right\}_{i=1}^n$. This may be abbreviated to $\partial_i$ in some cases. THis is fine if you're only dealing with a single coordinate chart, but if there are two that you're talking about simultaneously, it's better to be more explicit.
  3. A basis of covector fields $\{dx^i\}_{i=1}^n$. These are the exterior derivatives of the functions $x^i$, and they are the dual to the basis above. Alternatively, you can define a-priori $\{dx^i\}_{i=1}^n$ to be the symbolic expression for the dual basis, and then prove that they are indeed the exterior derivative of the coordinate functions $x^i$.

Next, if we suppose that we have a Riemannian metric $g$ (this is the classical notation for the metric tensor). Then, we introduce the notation

  1. $g_{ij}=g\left(\frac{\partial}{\partial x^i},\frac{\partial}{\partial x^j}\right)$, i.e take the inner product with respect to $g$ of the coordinate-induced basis vector fields.

  2. We can store the above functions $g_{ij}:U\to\Bbb{R}$ in a matrix $[g_{ij}]$. This is an invertible matrix, and its inverse matrix is denoted by $[g^{ij}]$, so $g^{ij}$ refers to the $(i,j)$-entry of the inverse matrix to $[g_{ij}]$. A more abstract definition of $g^{ij}$ is as follows. Since $g$ is a metric tensor, in particular it means that the mapping $g^{\flat}:TM\to T^*M$, $g^{\flat}(v)=g(v,\cdot)$ is a vector-bundle isomorphism; its inverse is denoted $g^{\sharp}:T^*M\to TM$. Thus, it allows us to "transfer" the $(0,2)$ tensor field $g$ from $TM$ to $T^*M$, i.e we get a $(2,0)$ tensor field $\tilde{g}(\cdot,\cdot)= g(g^{\sharp}(\cdot),g^{\sharp}(\cdot))$. Then, the components $\tilde{g}(dx^i,dx^j)$ are precisely the functions $g^{ij}$ I defined above.

  3. Next, on a Riemannian manifold, we can talk about covariant derivatives with respect to the Levi-Civita connection $\nabla$. With this, we introduce the Christoffel symbols via the equation $\nabla_{\frac{\partial}{\partial x^i}}\left(\frac{\partial}{\partial x^j}\right)= \Gamma^{k}_{ij}\frac{\partial}{\partial x^k}$, or more explicitly, $\Gamma^k_{ij}=dx^k\left(\nabla_{\frac{\partial}{\partial x^i}}\left(\frac{\partial}{\partial x^j}\right)\right)$.

Now, I typically reserve the notation $\mathbf{e}_i$ to mean the normalized version of $\frac{\partial}{\partial x^i}$, so \begin{align} \mathbf{e}_i:=\frac{\frac{\partial}{\partial x^i}}{\left\|\frac{\partial}{\partial x^i}\right\|}= \frac{\frac{\partial}{\partial x^i}}{\sqrt{g\left(\frac{\partial}{\partial x^i},\frac{\partial}{\partial x^i}\right)}}=\frac{1}{\sqrt{g_{ii}}}\frac{\partial}{\partial x^i}. \end{align} Sometimes, I might use $\{\mathbf{e}_i\}_{i=1}^n$ to just mean an arbitrary local basis of vector fields (possibly orthonormal, but not necessarily; another term for this is a moving (tangent) frame). Actually, I personally would drop the boldface, and just say "let $\{e_i\}_{i=1}^n$ be a local basis of vector fields for the tangent bundle", or I also like the letter $\xi$, so I might say "let $\{\xi_i\}_{i=1}^n$ be a local frame for $TM$". However, some people may use $\mathbf{e}_i$ synonymously with $\frac{\partial}{\partial x^i}$, so always read the definition provided by the author first, and decide the meaning based on context.

Now I've only taken a cursory look at Pavel Grinfeld's notation, and here's what I gather (I'll try to match up each point above with a cooresponding one below). Also, he seems to work only in $\Bbb{R}^n$, so there's always a Riemannian metric present, and he seems to like the letter $Z$ alot:

  1. ' He uses $(Z^1,\dots, Z^n)$ to denote coordinates instead of $(x^1,\dots, x^n)$.
  2. ' He uses the notation $\mathbf{Z}_i$ for what I've called $\frac{\partial}{\partial x^i}$ above.
  3. ' I haven't seen him introduce an analogue to $dx^i$, but if he did, he'd just denote it as $dZ^i$.
  4. ' He writes $Z_{ij}$ in place of $g_{ij}$.
  5. ' He writes $Z^{ij}$ in place of $g^{ij}$.
  6. ' He writes $\frac{\partial \mathbf{Z}_i}{\partial Z^j}=\Gamma^k_{ij}\mathbf{Z}_k$ for the definition of the Christoffel symbols. Note this only makes sense because he's working in $\Bbb{R}^n$, which is why we can take partial derivatives of vector fields.

Lastly, he introduces a "contravariant basis" $\mathbf{Z}^i$, defined as $\mathbf{Z}^i= g^{ij}\mathbf{Z}_j$. In the usual notation, it would be written as $g^{ij}\frac{\partial}{\partial x^j}$. In my opinion, this is a confusing step because it is artifically forcing one to work within the tangent space and avoid venturing out into the dual space, which is a perfectly natural place to go. I suggest taking a look at this answer of mine where I give more details.


Perhaps one final thing I should mention is why we use the partial differential notation $\frac{\partial}{\partial x^i}(p)$ to mean an element of the tangent space $T_pM$. One way of viewing it is that the definition of a tangent vector is simply as a derivation (a linear map acting on smooth functions, which satisfies the product rule). This is an abstract definition, but it's technically pretty smooth-sailing. A slightly more geometric way of looking at things is by looking at (equivalence classes of) smooth curves passing through the point $p$. If you're given a coordinate chart $(U,x)$ on the manifold about $p$, and if we let $\{e_i\}_{i=1}^n$ denote the standard basis on $\Bbb{R}^n$, then one example of a curve is \begin{align} \gamma_i(t)=x^{-1}(x(p)+te_i). \end{align} In words, we have a point $p$ in the manifold, and we can look at it's coordinate representation $x(p)\in\Bbb{R}^n$. We can no move along the $i^{th}$-direction, which yields the line $t\mapsto x(p)+te_i$, and finally we can use $x^{-1}$ to map this back to the manifold. So, the curve $\gamma_i$ is like "moving in the manifold while only varying $x^i$". Now, given this curve, there is a natural way in which we can allow it to "act" on smooth functions, namely for any smooth function $f:M\to\Bbb{R}$, consider $(f\circ\gamma_i)'(0)$, but this is just \begin{align} (f\circ\gamma_i)'(0)=\frac{d}{dt}\bigg|_{t=0}f(x^{-1}(x(p)+te_i))= D(f\circ x^{-1})_{x(p)}(e_i)=D_i(f\circ x^{-1})(x(p)), \end{align} where $D_i$ means partial derivative with respect to the $i^{th}$ variable. The last term is what we simply write as $\frac{\partial f}{\partial x^i}(p)$. Because of $f$ being arbitrary, it makes sense to 'identify' the curve $\gamma_i$ with the operator $\frac{\partial}{\partial x^i}(p)$, thereby obtaining an identification between the geometric definition of tangent vectors via curves, and the algebraic version via derivations.

peek-a-boo
  • 65,833
  • In Pavel Grinfeld book: "The contravariant basis $\bf Z^i$ is defined as ${\bf Z^i}=Z^{ij}{\bf Z_j}$ " with $Z^{ij}$ being the contravariant metric tensor. You also reflect that in your answer. Isn't this his idea of the dual? He does mention that the vectors ${\bf Z_i}$ and ${\bf Z^i}$ are orthogonal, which is the Kronecker delta between the basis of a space and the dual. I guess what I don't understand in your answer is your reading that he would need a $d{\bf Z^i}$. What am I missing? Doesn't it sound to you like he has all the characters in this play already there? – Antoni Parellada May 31 '22 at 17:02
  • 1
    @JAP I'm not saying he needs a $dZ^i$ (I included statement (3.') only so I can compare side by side what is done in each presentation... otherwise the numbering would be off). What I'm saying is that he's artificially encoding the effect of the dual space back into the original vector space by defining $\mathbf{Z}^i=Z^{ij}\mathbf{Z}_j$ (rather than keeping the roles of the vector space and its duals (which are fundamentally different) separate). This is the main difference between the usual presentations I've seen (Spivak, Lee etc) and his. – peek-a-boo May 31 '22 at 17:08
  • What he is talking about is not the dual space in the literal linear algebra sense. This is further verified by him dotting the "dual vector" and the "vector" in vector space. How can it make sense to dot product a function (dual space element) of a vector and a vector? Clearly what he is doing is pushing the dual back into the vector space through an isomorphism. That's what peek a boo is saying – Clemens Bartholdy May 31 '22 at 17:12
  • I would recommend going with this answer if not mine because the other answer by Soluble Fish doesn't differentiate between $e_i $ and $\partial_i$, sure, functionally (in action) they are the same but they are two different things conceptually speaking. – Clemens Bartholdy May 31 '22 at 17:14
  • 1
    A bit over my head. Can I butcher your statement saying that the way Pavel Grinfeld defines the dual as simply orthogonal vectors (or the raising of an index by the metric) is a bit weird? He should define the dual simply as the Kronecker product of the vectors. But in the end the Z with an upper index is his dx (contravariant vector)? – Antoni Parellada May 31 '22 at 17:15
  • @Aplateofmomos to be fair, SolubleFIsh does mention the difference, and even gives an example where an arbitrary local frame does not arise from coordinates. OP should decide for themselves which answer they prefer. – peek-a-boo May 31 '22 at 17:15
  • No his upper index thing is in no way a $dx$ (co-vector) @JAP, his upper index thing is a representation of $dx$ as a vector if that mkaes sense – Clemens Bartholdy May 31 '22 at 17:16
  • You're right, but I was talking in terms of correctness. I can't register that point after reading Soluble Fish's answer. I guess it maybe because I still don't understand this frame field concept very well. @peek-a-boo – Clemens Bartholdy May 31 '22 at 17:19
  • 1
    @JAP Here's what we can say: typically we raise/lower components of a vector/covector (e.g $X_i=g_{ij}X^j$ and $X^i=g^{ij}X_j$), but Pavel Grinfeld is raising/lowering the index of the vectors themselves and calling them covariant vectors vs contravariant vectors which is weird terminology. In any case, this seems to be a minor point in comparison to the rest of your question (connecting his notation to the usual notation), especially since you say you're not really asking about raising/lowering indices. – peek-a-boo May 31 '22 at 17:23
  • 1
    Is it true, though, that with a lot of hand-waving his $\bf Z^i$ is meant to stand for the equivalent of $dx^i$ in other contexts, @peek-a-boo? – Antoni Parellada May 31 '22 at 17:34
  • 2
    @JAP yes, his $\mathbf{Z}^i$ is the 'equivalent' of $dx^i$, where the equivalence is described using the metric tensor. i.e use $g$ (more properly, the isomorphism $g^{\sharp}$ I wrote in my answer) to convert $dx^i$ into a vector field. – peek-a-boo May 31 '22 at 17:37
  • I wish I could accept both yours and @Solublefish's. I learned a lot from both. Thank you. – Antoni Parellada May 31 '22 at 17:38
  • Now I read this answer again, I am confused at one point. Why you keep large portion of text in the grey box? First time I see you write like this o_o – Clemens Bartholdy Jun 01 '22 at 08:33
2

The notations $\mathbf Z_i$ or $\mathbf e_i$ are completely equivalent (just a different letter is used). $\mathbf e^i$ with the upper index is used for a basis of covectors (a basis of the cotangent space, instead of the tangent space). This is usually the dual basis of $\mathbf e_i$, so we have the relation $\mathbf e^i (\mathbf e_j) = \delta^i_j$ where $\delta$ is the Kronecker symbol.

Those notations can be used for any set of (co)vector fields which are pointwise a basis of the (co)tangent space. On the other hand $\partial_i$ and $\text dx^i$ are specifically the basis of the tangent and cotangent spaces which arise from local coordinates.

Edit : one difference between a general local frame $\mathbf e_i$ (a set of local vector fields which are a basis of the tangent space at each point) and the one arising from local coordinates $x_i$ (ie the $\partial_i$) can be seen when computing Lie brackets of vector fields. We always have $[\partial_i, \partial_j] = 0$, while for a general frame $[\mathbf e_i, \mathbf e_j]$ can be non zero. In fact, this is a necessary and sufficient condition : if $\mathbf e_i$ is a frame whose Lie brackets vanish, then there are local coordinates $x^i$ such that $\mathbf e_i = \partial_i$.

Edit 2 It was not clear from OP that Pavel Grinfelds uses the notation $Z^i$ for coordinates (on top of $\mathbf Z_i$ for the tangent vectors). Taking this into account, $\mathbf Z_i$ is completely equivalent to $\partial_i$, while $\mathbf e_i$ can be used, depending on the context, for a frame which might not come from coordinates.

SolubleFish
  • 7,772
  • I do get the math part on the first paragraph, but could you please elaborate a bit on the second paragraph: aren't we always referring to local coordinates and local tangent (and cotangent) spaces? In other words, the basis vectors are always local - at a point. What is the point of distinguishing the Z's and e's from the more calculus notation? – Antoni Parellada May 31 '22 at 12:53
  • In physics, this difference is sometimes made by distinguishing abstract indices $a$ (which corresponds to general frames) and coordinate indices $i$ or $\mu$. See for example Spinors and Spacetime by Penrose for a book where this distinction is made. I edited some explanations in my answer. – SolubleFish May 31 '22 at 13:05
  • I think I get it now! This couple of sentence did the trick: "To get around problems with coordinate systems at various points of a manifold we adopt a strategy of using more than one set of coordinates. The manifold is said to be 'patched' by the different coordinate sets." So for instance, in a torus with curvilinear coordinates along the two different circular components we would use e's and z's (same for a sphere), whereas for some abstract manifold, like time and space, we are out of luck, and we use calculus notation. – Antoni Parellada May 31 '22 at 13:08
  • In the sphere we can have latitude and longitude (general frame); in timespace (GR) only local. Hence $\bf e$ or $\bf Z$ for the first; $\bf \partial$ and $\bf dx$ for the latter. Or, Greek indices for the latter. Right? – Antoni Parellada May 31 '22 at 13:14
  • This is not really the point. If you have coordinates (whether local or global), partial derivatives give you a frame. But this is not the only way to obtain a frame. For example, the plane in polar coordinates $(r,\theta)$ has a coordinate frame $(\partial_r,\partial_\theta)$. If we prefer to have unit vectors, we take $\mathbf e_r = \partial_r$ and $\mathbf e_\theta = \frac 1r \partial_\theta$. However, in this case, the frame $(\mathbf e_r,\mathbf e_\theta)$ does not arise as partial derivatives of local coordinates (one can check that the Lie bracket $[\mathbf e_r,\mathbf e_\theta] \neq 0$ – SolubleFish May 31 '22 at 13:15
  • In your edit "general local frame" is confusing in relation to the rest of it when later on you say, "while for a general frame [ei,ej] can be non zero." – Antoni Parellada May 31 '22 at 13:22
  • Why is it confusing ? The Lie brackets of the vectors always vanish when they are the partial derivatives of some local coordinates, but this is not always the case. – SolubleFish May 31 '22 at 13:29
  • 1
    I think I get it now: for local frames generated by the derivative of positional vectors, the Lie bracket is zero, whereas for general frame that are just like the long and latitude on a sphere, the Lie bracket is non-zero. We use calculus notation for the former, and e's for the latter. Right? – Antoni Parellada May 31 '22 at 13:35
  • 1
    Yes (although even in the first case, we are free to use either the calculus notation or the general ones. Pavel Grinfeld does the latter). However, latitude and longitude are coordinates on the sphere. I gave an example in the comments above for a frame which does not come from local coordinates. – SolubleFish May 31 '22 at 13:37
  • It would be great if you considered capturing your last comment in the answer for clarity - i.e. Pavel Grinfeld uses the general notation despite the fact that he defines these basis vectors as local frames generated by the derivatives of the positional vectors. However, it is more usual to resort to calculus notation for this setting, and reserve the e's and z's for general coordinates (as in a torus or a sphere)... You can make the wording precise. – Antoni Parellada May 31 '22 at 17:56
  • Silly follow-up question... I looked up vanishing Lie brackets in local coordinates and it is out of my depth, but can I say that the timespace manifold in GR has non-vanishing Lie brackets indicating curvatures? If so, are the basis vectors in the tangent space not the result of local derivatives along curves? – Antoni Parellada May 31 '22 at 22:59
  • Not really. The Lie bracket do not indicate curvature of the manifold (in fact they do not depend on the metric at all). The tangent vectors can always be defined as local derivatives along curves. For a coordinate basis, the curves used to define the vectors are obtained by varying one coordinate and keeping the others fixed. This is far from the only way to obtain a set of $n$ local curves at each point. – SolubleFish Jun 01 '22 at 06:05
0

I have linked a post already. If that doesn't give a full pic, lemme summarize what's going on here. So, the way Pavel Grinfeld is doing it is that he has managed to find a way to squeeze the dual space of a vector space into the vector space itself using the metric tensor and then a canonical isomorphism between dual and regular space which works due to two reason:

  1. All vector space of same dim is isomorphic

  2. Dual vector space of a vector space is of same dim as vector space

Now this is pretty convoluted to do in a rigorous conceptual sense as peek-a-boo(zebra pfp) has pointed out very correctly in the linked answer that they wrote.

Now, what is the relation between $\partial_i$ and $e_i$ thing? Well the idea is they can be identified with each other and the exact details of how that is done relates to a topic known as derivations.

Finally $dx^i$ or the differential forms, in context of what all I said above, a way one could see them is that you identify $e_i$ with $\partial_i$ then you see the dual of $\partial_i$. This dual space has a basis of $dx^i$ for all the index of $i$ as $\partial_i$ having property that:

$$ dx^i(\partial_j) = \delta_j^i$$

Hope this help you fit in all the ideas together.