This is taken from Problem 4.13 by Christian Berg's Complex Analysis. See also post, not a duplicate! I will copy the problem to show the whole context:src)
4.13. (Requires basic measure theory). Let $(X,\mathbb{E},\mu)$ be a measurable space and let $G\subseteq\mathbb{C}$ be open. Assume that $f:X\times G\to\mathbb{C}$ satisfies
(ⅰ) $\forall x \in X$ : $f(x,\cdot)\in\mathcal{H}(G)$.
(ⅱ) $\forall z \in G$ : $f(\cdot,z)$ is measurable on $X$.
(ⅲ) There exists a measurable function $g:X\to[0,\infty]$ satisfying $\int g\,\mathrm{d}\mu<\infty$, such taht $$\left|f(x,z)\right|\leq g(x) \quad\text{for}\quad x\in X, \ z \in G.$$
$\mathbf{1^{\circ}}$ Prove that $\frac{\partial f}{\partial z}(\cdot, z)$ is measurable for each $z \in G$.
$\mathbf{2^{\circ}}$ Assume that $\overline{K(z_0,r)}\subseteq G$. Prove that $$ \left| \frac{\partial f}{\partial z}(x,z)\right|\leq\frac{4}{r}g(x), \quad z\in K(z_0,r/2), \ x \in X.$$ and that $$\frac{1}{h} (f(x,z_0+h)-f(x,z_0)) = \int_{0}^{1} \frac{\partial f}{\partial z}(x, z_0+th)\,\mathrm{d}t, \quad 0<|h|<r, \ x \in X. $$
$\mathbf{3^{\circ}}$ Prove that $$ F(z) = \int_{X} f(x, z) \, \mathrm{d}\mu(x), \quad z \in G, $$ is holomorphic in $G$ and $$ F'(z) = \int_{X} \frac{\partial f}{\partial x}(x, z) \, \mathrm{d}\mu(x), \quad z \in G.$$
Remark. Notice that (ⅲ) can be replaced by local conditions: For each $a \in G$ there exists a disc $K(a, r)\subseteq G$ and a "majorant" $g$, both depending on $a$ such taht $$\left| f(x, z) \right| \leq g(x) \quad\text{for}\quad x \in X, \ z \in K(a, r).$$ $\color{red}{\blacksquare[}$ Notice also that in this version the results can be applied to $\frac{\partial f}{\partial z}$, so the final conclusion is that we can differentiate the integral infinitely often by differentiating under the integral sign: $$ F^{(n)}(z) = \int \frac{\partial^n f}{\partial z^n}(x,z) \, \mathrm{d}\mu(x), \quad z \in G, \ n \in \mathbb{N}. \tag*{$\color{red}{]\blacksquare}$} $$
I have solved this problem. The question is right ind the end, see the red part I have marked. I do not know how it is reached? Seems like one should prove it by induction. If I put $$h(x,z):=\frac{\partial f}{\partial z}(x,z) \quad\text{for}\quad (x,z)\in X\times G, $$ then $h$ clearly satisfies the two first points, but I do not know how to prove the last point (iii). Thank you for your time!