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Prove every non-trivial permutation of $\omega = {\{1,2,....,n}\}$ can be written as a composite of less than $n$ transpositions.

I have no idea where to start with this. I know every permutation can be written as a product of disjoint cycles and I know a transposition is a cycle of length $2$. But I honestly don't know where to start.

Jan Hrcek
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the man
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    I believe you can prove this by induction. Consider a permutation $\sigma \in Sym(n+1)$. Cow consider two cases. Two cases being whether the permutation $\sigma$ changes the position of the last element or not. – Jal Oct 04 '16 at 20:15
  • @sina why not post an answer? It's certainly a valid approach. – Matt Samuel Oct 04 '16 at 20:42
  • Given the list $[\sigma(i),i=1\dots n]$, the selection sort algorithm builds a list of at most $n-1$ transpositions whose product is $\sigma$. – Jean-Claude Arbaut Mar 13 '22 at 11:03

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Hint. Note that a cycle of length $k\geq 2$ can be written as a product of $k-1$ transpositions as follows: $$ (a_1 ... a_{k-1} a_{k})=(a_1 a_{k})(a_1 a_{k-1})...(a_1 a_2).$$

massimo
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Robert Z
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By induction - suppose any permutation of $[n]$ takes less than $n$ transpositions. Consider any permutation $w$ of $[n+1].$ Use one transposition to swap $n+1$ into the correct location, if $w_{n+1} \neq n+1$ . Now, you have less than $n$ transpositions for the rest, by inductive hypothesis. So the total required is less than $n+1$.

Nitin
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  • But what about the inductive base? I think you should first prove the statement for some value of $n$. Moreover, in the inductive step you suggest to use one transposition to swap $n+1$ into the correct location But in this way arent'you mixing up all the others? – massimo Jan 09 '17 at 08:14
  • Valid concerns. I left out the base case because for $S_2$ it is clear. The second question - you're mixing up the others, but it doesn't matter. The important point is that you used one transposition, and now you have $n$ elements permuted. – Nitin Jan 09 '17 at 17:48
  • I agree with @Nitin. Indeed, I missed the second point: you can exploit the inductive hypothesis to correctly remix the old elements. A minor remark on this inductive proof: it is not constructive, that is, it does not show how to actually obtain the composition. Which is not a lack, since it fully answers the question, and in a very concise way, but I think the Hint that was first given is a useful complementary answer. – massimo Jan 09 '17 at 18:16
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As you observed, any permutation can be expressed as a product of cycles. But any cycle can be expressed via suitable transpositions. In fact, consider a cycle of length $n$: $(a_1,a_2,a_3,...a_n)$. Think of $a_{i+1}$ as the destination of box $i$ and let's start sending the content of boxes using transpositions. For box 1 this can be done via $(a_1,a_2)$. Now the content of box 1 is in its final destination but the content of box 2 is not. Since the content of box 2 must go in $a_3$ we add the transposition $(a_1,a_3)$. Going on this way we are done with $(a_1,a_{n})$ which sends to its final destination both $a_{n-1}$ and $a_n$ (in the remaining slot). Thus, the cycle will be rewritten as $$\prod_{i=2}^n(a_1,a_i)$$ i.e. using $n-1<n$ transpositions.

massimo
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Let the integer $n \ge 1$ be given and set $\bar n = \{1,2,\dots, n-1, n\}$.

Notation: The swap permutation of two elements $a, b \in \bar n$ is denoted by $(a \, b)$; but when $a = b$ we agree to let $(a \, b)$ represent the identity mapping.

By the rule of product, the collection of all families,

$\quad \displaystyle \mathcal T = \{ \bigr( \; \big(k \; \omega(k)\big) \; \bigr )_{k\in \bar n} \; \mid [\omega \text{ is a function: } \bar n \to \bar n] \; \land \; k \le \omega(k) \} $

contains $n!$ elements.

We can associate to an $T \in \mathcal T$ the permutation $\Phi(T)$ defined by the composition product

$\quad \Phi(T) = \prod\limits_{k=1}^{n}\, \big(k \; \omega(k)\big) = \big(1 \; \omega(1)\big) \circ \big(2 \; \omega(2)\big) \circ \dots \circ \big(n \; \omega(n)\big)$

Exercise 1: Show that $\Phi$ is an injective mapping into $S_n$.

Since $S_n$ also has $n!$ elements, $\Phi$ is a bijection.

When $n \ge 2$ the term $\big(n \; \omega(n)\big) = \big(n \; n \big)$, so

$\quad \Phi(T) = \prod\limits_{k=1}^{n-1}\, \big(k \; \omega(k)\big)$

and so every permutation can be written as a composite of less than $n$ transpositions.

CopyPasteIt
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We want to show that: $(a_1, a_2, ..., a_n) = \prod_{i=0}^{n-2} (a_1, a_{n-i})$

Where $\prod_{i=1}^{n} a_i = a_1 \cdot a_2 \cdot ...\cdot a_n$

Use an induction step here. if the above then:

$(a_1, a_2, ..., a_{n+1}) = \prod_{i=0}^{n-1} (a_1, a_{n+1-i})$

that is equivalent to

$(a_1, a_2, ..., a_{n+1}) = (a_1, a_{n+1}) \cdot \prod_{i=0}^{n-2} (a_1, a_{n-i})$

Permutation $(a_1, a_2, ..., a_{n+1})$ differs from $(a_1, a_2, ..., a_{n})$ only in a way such that $a_n \rightarrow a_{n+1}$ and $a_{n+1} \rightarrow a_1$

Plugging in $a_n$ into permutation $(a_1, a_2, ..., a_{n})$ returns $a_{n+1}$. Then in the "highest layer" it is transformed into $a_1$ by $(a_1, a_{n+1})$.

On the other hand plugging in $a_{n+1}$ will leave us with 1 as there's no occurrence of $a_{n+1}$ anywhere, but in the leftmost element of a product.

Thus induction step is indeed proven.

Base step is trivial. Just check.

$ (a_1, a_2, a_3) = (a_1, a_3) \cdot (a_1, a_2)$

JRazek
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