The normal distribution $e^{-x^2/2}$ satisfies the ODE $y'=-xy$ on the real line.
Is there a non-trivial, non-negative solution to the discretized version of this ODE $$u(n+1)-u(n-1)=-2nu(n)?$$
The normal distribution $e^{-x^2/2}$ satisfies the ODE $y'=-xy$ on the real line.
Is there a non-trivial, non-negative solution to the discretized version of this ODE $$u(n+1)-u(n-1)=-2nu(n)?$$
First, any solution $u$ satisfies $u(-n)=u(n)$ for all $n$ — because both $u(n)$ and $u(-n)$ satisfy the same recurrence, $u(0)=u(-0)$ and $u(1)=u(-1)\impliedby u(1)-u(-1)=-2\cdot 0\cdot u(0).$
Next, the function $$U(x)=\sum_{n=0}^{\infty}u(n)\frac{x^n}{n!},\qquad |x|<\frac12,$$ satisfies $(1+2x)U''(x)+2U'(x)-U(x)=0$ which is solved by $$U(x)=C_1 I_0(\sqrt{1+2x})+C_2 K_0(\sqrt{1+2x})$$ where $I_0$ and $K_0$ are modified Bessel functions (and $C_1, C_2$ are constants).
This gives general solutions of the recurrence in question. Further, as we have $$I_0(\sqrt{1+2x})=\sum_{k=0}^{\infty}\frac{1}{k!^2}\Big(\frac{1+2x}{4}\Big)^k\\=\sum_{k=0}^{\infty}\frac{2^{-2k}}{k!^2}\sum_{n=0}^{k}\frac{k!(2x)^n}{n!(k-n)!}\\=\sum_{n=0}^{\infty}\frac{(2x)^n}{n!}\sum_{k=n}^{\infty}\frac{2^{-2k}}{k!(k-n)!}\\=\sum_{n=0}^{\infty}\frac{1}{n!}\Big(\frac{x}{2}\Big)^n\sum_{k=0}^{\infty}\frac{2^{-2k}}{k!(n+k)!},$$ the choice $C_1=1, C_2=0$ gives a nonnegative solution: $$u(n)=\sum_{k=0}^{\infty}\frac{2^{-|n|-2k}}{k!(|n|+k)!}.$$ This is just $I_n(1)$; actually, the general solution can be seen as $$u(n)=C_1 I_n(1) + C_2 (-1)^n K_n(1).$$ Note that $I_n(1)$ decays (and $K_n(1)$ grows) when $n\to\infty$.
Edit : in fact, the sequence one gets through the given second order recurrence relationship is, whatever $u_0$ and $u_1$, most often oscillating and rapidly divergent.
I propose to take instead the following discretization with a non-symmetrical derivative (with a step $\Delta x=1$) :
$$-n u_n=u_n-u_{n-1} \ \ \ \text{with} \ u_0=1\tag{1}$$
giving the first order (instead of second order) recurrence relationship :
$$u_n=\tfrac{1}{1+n}u_{n-1}\tag{2}$$
One gets in this way a decreasing sequence tending to $0$ from above, already "in the same spirit" as Laplace-Gauss.
But a nice surprise comes, when one takes a much smaller step, for example $\Delta x = 0.01$, instead of step $\Delta x = 1$, i.e. by replacing (2) by :
$$u_n=\tfrac{1}{1+n/100}u_{n-1}\tag{3}$$
When one plots $u_n$ as a function of variable $n$, one obtains the following "curve", very close to the (right part of) Laplace-Gauss curve :
Fig. 1 : The 21 first terms of recurrent sequence defined by (3) $u_0=1, u_1=\tfrac{100}{101}, \cdots$ represented as a curve.
Remark : One should make a study of the "most adequate" $\Delta x$. We will not do it because we are already far enough from the initial question of the OP.
Previous "answer", merely a comment now.
For sequences, It is often advisable to take a look at the OEIS Encyclopedia of sequences. But in this case, I have only found results for the cousin sequence A001053 : https://oeis.org/A001053.
$a(n+1) = n*a(n) + a(n-1)$ with $a(0)=1, a(1)=0,$
mentionning solutions with modified Bessels, etc. (as some of those found by @Metamorphy and explained in his very interesting answer).
Clearly $u(-n)=u(n)$ by symmetry, and for any solution multiplying all the $u(n)$ by a constant $k$ also gives a solution. So in a sense, having a correct value for the ratio of $u(0)$ and $u(1)$ determines all the other values from the recursion.
As an empirical approach, it is clear that the problem is that once $u(n)$ is negative while $u(n-1)$ is positive, you then get explosive oscillation. If this is supposed to be like a normal distribution then values should not be negative. So the aim should be to find a solution which prevents (or at least delays) a negative $u(n)$.
If you try $u(0)=1,u(1)=1$ then you get $u(2)=-1$, which is unacceptable. If you try $u(0)=1,u(1)=\frac12$ then you get $u(2)=0,u(3)=\frac12, u(4)=-3$ which is better. Then try $u(0)=1,u(1)=\frac14$ and you get $u(2)=\frac12,u(3)=-\frac74$ which goes too far, but suggests that you want $\frac14 \lt \frac{u(1)}{u(0)}\lt \frac12$.
You can then use a binary search algorithm to improve the calculation of $\frac{u(1)}{u(0)}$ to arbitrary precision, adjusting the estimate based on when the first negative value occurs from what I have elsewhere called failed recursions. Since you only want the ratio $\frac{u(1)}{u(0)}$, you can keep the calculation in integers to avoid rounding issues, expressing each step as:
You should get something like this
u(0) u(1) u(2) u(3) u(4) u(5) u(6) u(7) next adj.
1 1 -1 5 -31 253 -2561 30985 -1
2 1 0 1 -6 49 -496 6001 -1
4 1 2 -7 44 -359 3634 -43967 +1
8 3 2 -5 32 -261 2642 -31965 +1
16 7 2 -1 8 -65 658 -7961 +1
32 15 2 7 -40 327 -3310 40047 -1
64 29 6 5 -24 197 -1994 24125 -1
128 57 14 1 8 -63 638 -7719 +1
256 115 26 11 -40 331 -3350 40531 -1
512 229 54 13 -24 205 -2074 25093 -1
1024 457 110 17 8 -47 478 -5783 +1
2048 915 218 43 -40 363 -3670 44403 -1
4096 1829 438 77 -24 269 -2714 32837 -1
8192 3657 878 145 8 81 -802 9705 -1
16384 7313 1758 281 72 -295 3022 -36559 +1
32768 14627 3514 571 88 -133 1418 -17149 +1
65536 29255 7026 1151 120 191 -1790 21671 -1
131072 58509 14054 2293 296 -75 1046 -12627 +1
262144 117019 28106 4595 536 307 -2534 30715 -1
524288 234037 56214 9181 1128 157 -442 5461 -1
1048576 468073 112430 18353 2312 -143 3742 -45047 +1
2097152 936147 224858 36715 4568 171 2858 -34125 +1
4194304 1872295 449714 73439 9080 799 1090 -12281 +1
8388608 3744591 899426 146887 18104 2055 -2446 31407 -1
which suggests $\frac{u(1)}{u(0)}$ should be marginally less than $0.44639$, and by taking more steps you can find this ratio to as high a precision as you wish. metamorphy's analysis shows this is the ratio of modified Bessel functions $\frac{I_1(1)}{I_0(1)}=0.4463899658965345\ldots$.
If you want to turn this into a probability mass function, i.e. summing to $1$, you then get $u(0) \approx 0.466$, $u(1)=u(-1) \approx 0.208$, $u(2)=u(-2) \approx 0.050$, $u(3)=u(-3) \approx 0.008$, $u(4)=u(-4) \approx 0.001$, and other $u(n)$ much smaller. These correspond to the so-called exponentially scaled Bessel functions $u(n)=\frac1e I_n(1)$, which can be derived from metamorphy's analysis.
Comparing this probability mass function in blue with the red density of a standard normal distribution gives the following chart. Despite appearances, the variances of the two distributions are both $1$, though the discrete distribution is leptokurtic with kurtosis $4$ rather than the normal distribution's $3$ (i.e. excess kurtosis $1$ rather than $0$).