We know that a function in $L^1(\mathbb{R}^d)\cap L^2(\mathbb{R}^d)$ and its Fourier transform have the same $L_2$ norm. I wonder if there is any result about the function's Fourier transform's $L_p$ norm, for $p \in [1,\infty)$. We may assume that the function is $L_p$ integrable for any $p$.
In case no exact equality is known, any inequality that bounds the $L_p$ norm from above and below would be great.
Edit: David has given the result for upper bounding the Fourier transform in $p\in(1,2]$, a result known as the Hausdorff-Young inequality. It would be great to have some result for $p>2$ and lower bounds as well.
Thanks in advance.