If $\limsup_{n\rightarrow\infty}\int\limits_{0}^{\epsilon}f_{n}(x)dx=0$ and $f_{n}(x)$ is a non negative function on the interval $[0,\epsilon]$ and $\epsilon$ is a non negative real number.
Then $\limsup_{n\rightarrow\infty}f_n(x)=0$ almost everywhere on the interval $[0,\epsilon]$?
I think it seems intuitively correct, but I don't know how to prove it. I would be appreciated if anyone can help me this. Thanks.