2

Perhaps I don't understand the answers to Malleability attacks against encryption without authentication, so trying to be more concrete... please be patient.

If I want to change the first block and I can change the IV, I see that its easy to change the IV to IV xor old_block_0 xor new_block_0 and the first block would change.

However, if I want to change the second block block_1, I don't understand how can I do it? If I change the block before it to block_0 xor x I would garble the D(block_0), won't I?

Community
  • 1
ihadanny
  • 121
  • 5

1 Answers1

3

Depending on how malleability is defined, the question actually has some merit.

Given to the Wikipedia definition of malleability, a cipher is malleable if there exists at least one function $g$ over the set of possible cipher texts, and one function $f$ over the set of possible plain texts, such that given any cipher text $c_0$, the cipher text $c_1 = g(c_0)$ will decrypt to $D_k(c_1) = f(D_k(c_0))$ regardless of which key $k$ is used for the decryption.

Given that a function by definition assigns a unique value to each argument, there only exists such a function $f$ for CBC mode that might be known in advance to the attacker and might be determined from $g$ alone, if the corresponding function $g$ only modifies the IV. If the function $g$ modifies any other block, then $f$ will either be a relation (i.e. assign a set of possible values to each argument, rather than a unique value), or it will be a function that depends also on the key $k$.

Still, non-malleability might be defined in such way that the function $f$ only has to exist, without necessarily being known to the attacker in advance. If non-malleability is defined in such way, it is not necessarily a problem that this might imply that $f$ depends also on the unknown key and not just on $g$ and the plain text.

Henrick Hellström
  • 10,556
  • 1
  • 32
  • 59